A Дисциплина «Анатомия человека»



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Лектор: Кидирбаева Х.К.

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«АДАМ АНАТОМИЯСЫ»
EП-19-16а- тобы
300 тест
1. All glands of the human body are divided into:

A) exocrine, endocrine;

B) exocrine, mixed;

C) Exocrine, exocrine and mixed glands

D) endocrine and mixed glands;

E) glands of external secretion and mixed;


2. Glands that have excretory ducts and secreting their secrets to the surface of the body or into the body cavity or in the body cavity are called:

A) exocrine;

B) endocrine;

C) mixed glands;

D) sweat glands;

E) salivary glands;


3. By mixed glands refers

A) gonads, pancreas, duodenal glands, stomach glands;

B) sweat, solo, sex, pancreas, duodenal glands;

C) salivary, liver, pancreas, sex, sweat glands;

D) lacrimal, genital, kidneys, glands of the stomach, salivary and sweat glands;

E) sweat, solo, sex, pancreas, salivary;


4. Glands that do not have excretory ducts and release hormones produced by them directly into the blood are called:

A) endocrine;

B) exocrine;

C) mixed;

D) sexual;

E) sebaceous;


5. What compound is called a hormone?

A) biologically active substances produced by external secretion glands;

B) substances that come with food;

C) substances removed from the body;

D) biologically active substances produced by the endocrine glands;

E) non-biologically active substances produced by the external secretion glands;


6. Regulation of gland activity is carried out:

A) the nervous system and certain hormones;

B) nervous system and endocrine system;

C) some hormones;

D) endocrine system;

E) only the nervous system;


7. Which of the following statements regarding the properties of hormones are incorrect?

A) provide quick and accurate response;

V. act only on living cells, their action is strictly specific;

C) have high biological activity, have an effect in very low concentrations;

D) the organ on which the hormone acts may be located far from the glanD)

E) do not have high biological activity, have an effect in very low concentrations;


8. Functions of hormones:

A) provide homeostasis, control metabolic processes;

B) Ensure the growth and development of the body;

C) ensure the adaptation of the organism to constantly changing environmental conditions;

D) provide development, control metabolic processes;

E) Provide reproduction and development of the organism;


9. The growth of the body is most regulated by the following set of hormones:

A) growth hormone, thyroid hormones, sex hormones;

B) growth hormone, prolactin, insulin, sex hormones;

C) growth hormone, thyroliberin, substance P, sex;

D) growth hormone, thyroid hormones, vasopressin hormone;

E) thyroid hormones, sex hormones, hormones;


10. Growth hormone synthesized on ribosomes:

A) rough EPR;

B) free, different;

C) free and rough EPR;

D) mitochondrial;

E) mitochondrial free;

11. What hormones increase blood glucose levels?

A) adrenaline;

B) calcitonin;

C) glucagon;

D) oxytocin;

E) teroxin;

12. What hormones lower blood glucose?

A) insulin;

B) cortisol;

C) adrenaline;

D) oxytocin;

E) teroxin;

13. The content of glucose in the blood of animals and humans is maintained at a relatively constant level with the participation of:

A) hypothalamus, kidneys, adrenal glands, liver, pancreas;

B) hypothalamus, kidneys, adrenal glands;

C) liver, pancreas, adrenal glands;

D) pancreas, hypothalamus, liver, hypothalamus, cerebellum;

E) Liver, pancreas, hypothalamus;


14. Why it is impossible to increase the concentration of insulin in the blood by oral administration (in the form of tablets?

A) Insulin is a protein.insulin is broken down in the digestive system;

B) insulin acts on the liver cells and does not act;

C) directly after transfer from the digestive tract into the blood;

D) increasing the concentration of insulin in the digestive system;

E) directly after transfer from the digestive tract;


15. Thyroid Hormone:

A) thyroxin;

B) adrenaline;

C) insulin;

D) somatostatin;

E) adrenaline;


16. What disease do insulin injections take?

A) diabetes;

В) color blindness;

C) anemia;

D) silicosis;

E) hepatitis;


17. Rebuilding of bone tissue. Eliminate the wrong ...

A) important only for fractures

B) simultaneously occurring processes of resorption of old bone and formation of a new

C) carried out constantly

D) is carried out jointly by osteoclasts and osteoblasts

E) provides replacement of 5 to 10% of the lamellar bone per year

18. Adrenaline:

A) does not increase intestinal peristalsis;

В) does not stimulate the conversion of glycogen to glucose;

C) does not increase heart rate;

D) does not cause dilated pupils;

E) does not reduce appetite and hunger;


19. A moderate increase in the concentration of adrenaline in the blood leads to a decrease in blood flow to:

A) intestine;

В) Brain;

C) muscles;

D) heart;

E) liver;


20. Getting into the blood, adrenaline causes:

A) constriction of all vessels, except vessels of the heart and brain;

B) the ministry of all blood vessels except the vessels of the heart;

C) expansion of all blood vessels except the brain;

D) has no effect on the lumen of blood vessels;

E) expansion of all blood vessels except heart vessels;


21. Significance of the nervous system:

A) ensuring the coordinated work of all organs and systems of the body;

B) not ensuring the coordinated work of all organs and body systems;

C) implementation of the orientation of the organism in the external environment and adaptive reactions to its changes;

D) material basis of mental activity, speech, thinking, social behavior;

E) not implementing the orientation in the external environment and adaptive reactions to its changes;


22. The nervous system consists of the following departments:

A) central nervous system, peripheral nervous system;

B) brain, spinal cord, nerves, peripheral nervous system

C) brain, spinal cord, ganglia, central nervous system,

D) brain, spinal cord, nerve endings;

E) nerve nodes, spinal cord, nerve endings, brain;

23. Which of the following statements is incorrect:

A) The central nervous system consists of the brain, spinal cord, and ganglia;

В) the central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord;

C) The peripheral nervous system is made up of nerves, nerve nodes, nerve endings;

D) peripheral nervous system make up the nerve fibers, ganglia, nerve endings;

E) humoral nervous system is composed of nerve fibers, ganglia, nerve endings;


24. Nerve endings can be of two types:

A) receptor and effector;

B) effector and associative;

C) receptor and associative;

D) sensory and effector;

E) effector and associative;

25. Functionally, the nervous system is divided into:

A) somatic and vegetative;

B) somatic and peripheral;

C) somatic and sympathetic;

D) autonomous and vegetative;

E) somatic and autonomous;

26. Which of the following statements describing the somatic nervous system is incorrect?

A) regulates the glands;

В. is subject to the will of man;

C) regulates the work of skeletal muscles;

D) motor centers are in the cerebral cortex;

E) motor centers are not located in the cerebral cortex;


27. What organs does the somatic nervous system innervate?

A) muscle;

В. heart;

C) liver;

D) kidney;

E) stomach;

28. The autonomic nervous system is divided into sections:

A) sympathetic and parasympathetic;

В) somatic and parasympathetic;

C) autonomous and parasympathetic;

D) autonomous and sympathetic;

E) somatic and autonomous;

29. Which of the following statements describing the autonomic nervous system is incorrect:

A) regulates the work of skeletal muscles;

B) is not subject to the will of man;

C) regulates the work of internal organs;

D) autonomic centers are located in the hypothalamus;

E) autonomic centers are not located in the hypothalamus;


30. When activating the sympathetic nervous system is not observed:

A) constriction of the bronchi;

B)dilated pupils;

C) constriction of the blood vessels;

D) suppression of digestive function;

E) constriction of the trachea;


31. Excitation of the parasympathetic nervous system:

A) increases the secretion of digestive juices;

B) increase the frequency and strength of heart contractions;

C) increase in the liver the breakdown of glycogen with the formation of glucose molecules;

D) suppression of the function of digestion and absorption;

E) Increase glycogen breakdown in muscles to form glucose molecules;

32. Nerve cells located in the heart between muscle cells:

A) generate heartbeat rhythm;

B) are neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system;

C) are neurons of the sympathetic nervous system;

D) release adrenaline into the blood;

E) are not neurons of the sympathetic nervous system;


33. The surface membrane of the nerve cell at rest outside:

A) has a positive charge;

V. may have both positive and negative charge;

C) has a negative charge;

D) has no charge;

E) has no positive, no negative charge;

34. In the parasympathetic nervous system:

A) ganglia are located near the innervated organs or in their walls;

B) preganglionic nerve fibers, as a rule, shorter than postganglionic;

C) The bodies of nerve centrifugal neurons lie in the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord;

D) mediator of synoptic transmission in the ganglia is norepinephrine;

E) bodies of nerve centrifugal neurons lie in the lumbar spinal cord;


35. Nerve cells located in the heart between muscle cells:

A) generate heartbeat rhythm;

B) are neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system;

C) are neurons of the sympathetic nervous system;

D) release adrenaline into the blood;

E) are not neurons of the sympathetic nervous system;


36. The surface membrane of the nerve cell at rest outside:

A) has a positive charge;

В. may have both positive and negative charge;

C) has a negative charge;

D) has no charge;

E) has no positive, no negative charge;


37. When opening Na + channels on the membrane, the nerve cell:

A) depolarized;

B) hyperpolarized;

C) potential does not change;

D) Nerve cells do not have Na + channels;

E) there are no nerve cells on the membrane;

38. Associative neurons perform the function:

A) analyze information and develop solutions;

В) conduct an impulse from the brain and spinal cord to all working organs;

C) carry out information about the sensation of the surface of the body and internal organs in the brain;

D) perceive and conduct information;

E) do not carry out information about the sensation of the surface of the body and internal organs in the brain;


39. The motor neurons perform the function:

A) We give impulse from the brain and spinal cord to all working organs;

В.entury analyzing information;

C) develop solutions;

D) carry out information about the sensation of the surface of the body and internal organs in the brain;

E) do not give impulse from the brain and spinal cord to all working organs;

40. What is the active element of the locomotor system?

A) joints;

В) bones;

C) ligaments;

D) muscle;

E) blood;


41. What is the function of the locomotor system?

A) is a support and protection of the whole body and individual organs, determines the size and shape of the body

В) participates in the metabolism;

C) is a support, determines the size and shape of the body:

D) protection of the whole body and individual organs, determines the size and shape of the body;

E) does not participate in the metabolism; is the support and protection of the whole body and individual organs:


42. Short bones include:

A) The bones of the wrist and tarsus

В) sphenoid bone;

C) scapula, bones of the cranium;

D) the pelvic bone;

E) cranial bones;


43. The articular ends of each tubular bone, consisting of spongy substance and containing red bone marrow:

A) epiphysis;

В) diaphysis;

C) intervertebral disc;

D) osteocytes;

E) hypothalamus;


44. The long or tubular bone has epiphyses:

A) two;


В) one;

С) Three;

D) four;

E) Six;


45. Red bone marrow performs the function and contains:

A) hematopoietic, in the cells of the spongy substance of flat and tubular bones;

B) hematopoietic, in dense substance of tubular bones;

C) hematopoietic, in the cells of the spongy substance of flat bones;

D) immune, in the cells of the spongy substance of flat and tubular bones;

E) not hematopoietic, in cells of spongy substance of flat and tubular bones;


46. Due to what is achieved low mobility of the joints?

A) the presence of elastic cartilaginous pads between the bones;

B) by accretion;

C) the presence of a cavity between the articulating bones;

D) The articulated ends of the bones are covered with hyaline cartilage;

E) not available elastic cartilaginous pads between the bones;


47. ​​What is the structure of the bone?

A) a complex organ consisting of bone tissue, periosteum, bone marrow, blood and lymphatic vessels, nerves;

B) complex organ consisting of bone tissue, periosteum, bone marrow, blood and lymphatic vessels;

C) a complex organ consisting of bone tissue, periosteum, bone marrow;

D) complex organ consisting of the periosteum, bone marrow, blood and lymphatic vessels, nerves.

E) consisting of bone tissue, periosteum, bone marrow, blood vessels and lymphatic vessels;
48. Dried and defatted bone contains:

A) 30% organic matter, 60% mineral matter, 10% water;

B) 40% organic matter, 50% mineral matter, 10% water;

C) 20% organic matter, 70% mineral matter, 10% water;

D) 20% organic matter, 60% mineral matter, 20% water;

E) 33% organic matter, 62% mineral matter, 10% water;


49. What organic substances are in the composition of the bone?

A) Collagen, carbohydrates,

citric acid enzymes;

B) Collagen, carbohydrates, polysaccharides, protein;

C) fibrous protein, polysaccharides, citric acid;

D) fibrous protein, carbohydrates, polysaccharides, citric acid;

E) Collagen, carbohydrates, polysaccharides, glucose;
50. What minerals are part of the bone?

A) Salts of calcium, phosphorus, magnesium and trace elements;

B) salts of calcium, phosphorus, magnesium, sodium and trace elements;

C) salts of calcium, magnesium, sodium and trace elements;

D) salt of calcium, phosphorus,

sodium and trace elements;

E) salts of calcium, phosphorus, magnesium and trace elements, alkali;
51. The skeleton of the body consists of:

A) spinal column, chest;

В) spinal column, chest, upper limb girdle;

C) spinal column, chest, girdle of the lower extremities;

D) spinal column, chest, skeleton;

E) belts of the upper and lower extremities;


52.The number of vertebrae in each part of the spine is:

A) 7,12,5,5,4-5;

B) 7,12,5,6,4;

С) 7,12,6,5,4;

D) 7.12,6,6,4;

E) 7,12,3,6, 4-5;


53. Which parts of the spine of an adult are spliced?

A) sacral, coccygeal;

B)thoracic, coccygeal;

C) thoracic, sacral;

D) thoracic, sacral, coccygeal;

E) thoracic, spine;


54. A typical vertebra has the structure:

A) body, arc and processes;

В) body and arc;

C) body, arc, unpaired process;

D) body, arc, paired processes;

E) unpaired and paired processes;


55. To which processes of the vertebra are attached muscles?

A) not paired spinous, paired transverse;

B) unpaired spinous, transversely striped;

C) paired transverse;

D) paired upper and lower articular;

E) not paired upper and lower articular;


56. Which processes are used to connect with the adjacent vertebrae:

A) Paired upper and lower articular processes;

B) unpaired spinous and lower articular processes;

C) paired transverse;

D) unpaired spinous, paired transverse;

E) paired spinous, paired transverse;


57. Lordosis is:

A) bend, directed forward bulge;

В. bend, directed by the bulge to the top;

C) bend, directed forward bulge;

D) Curvature of the spine to the side;

E) bend, directed forward and upward;

58. Maintaining the constancy of living conditions in the internal environment of the body:

A) homeostasis;

B) homeopathy;

C) regulation;

D) reflex;

E) without conditiona;

59. The internal environment of the body consists of:

A) blood, lymph, tissue and cerebrospinal fluid;

В. blood, lymph, cerebrospinal fluid;

C) blood, lymph, tissue fluid;

D) blood, lymph, tissue fluid, glandular tissue;

E) Plasma, lymph, tissue and cerebrospinal fluid;


60. What is the role of tissue fluid?

A) washes cells, carries substances, forms lymph, transports carbon dioxide and oxygen;

B) transport, respiratory, nutritional, excretory, thermoregulatory, humoral regulation, maintenance of homeostasis;

C) excretory, thermostatic;

D) humoral regulation, maintenance of homeostasis;

E) does not wash cells, do not transfer substances, form lymph, transport carbon dioxide and oxygen;


61. What percentage of blood volume is plasma?

A) 55%;


B) 50%;

С. 40%;


D) 65%;

E) 45%;
62. What is part of blood plasma?

A) serum, fibrinogen;

B) serum, red blood cells;

C) platelets, fibrinogen;

D) leukocytes, fibrinogen;

E) serum, leukocytes;
63. Where are red blood cells produced?

A) red bone marrow, spleen;

B) liver, spleen;

C) spleen, lymph nodes;

D) lymph nodes, red bone marrow;

E) liver, red bone marrow;


64. Where are erythrocytes destroyed?

A) liver, spleen;

B) red bone marrow;

C) liver, kidney;

D) lymph nodes;

E) heart, stomach;


65. Where are leukocytes formed?

A) Red bone marrow, lymph nodes, spleen;

B) liver, red bone marrow;

C) spleen, liver, brain, spine;

D) kidney, heart, stomach, spleen;

E) liver, heart, stomach;


66. What blood elements are involved in its coagulation?

A) platelets;

B) red blood cells;

C) leukocytes;

D) leukocytes and platelets;

E) platelets, red blood cells;


67. Red blood cells perform the following functions:

A) gas transfer (oxygen and carbon dioxide);

B) transport of nutrients and excretion of carbon dioxide from the body;

C) transfer of glucose from the liver and gastrointestinal tract to all organs;

D) transport of oxygen and nutrients to the muscles;

E) not transferring glucose from the liver and gastrointestinal tract to all organs;


68. The number of red blood cells in 1 cu. mm of blood is:

A) up to 5 million;

B) 4-9 thousand;

С. 180-320 thousand;

D) up to 1 million;

E) up to 5-6 million;


69. In which organs is the blood purified?

A) lungs, liver, kidneys;

B) lungs, lymphatic vessels;

C) liver, spleen, brain;

D) red bone marrow, kidney;

E) Liver, spleen, kidneys;


70. The organs of blood formation are:

A) bone marrow, thymus, spleen, lymph nodes;

B) bone marrow, thymus, lymph nodes, liver;

C) spleen, adrenal medulla, thymus;

D) bone marrow, lymph nodes, spleen, liver, medulla;

E) bone marrow, kidneys, spleen, lymph nodes;


71. Protection of the body from living bodies and substances that carry genetically alien information:

A) immunity;

B) antigen;

C) homeostasis;

D) regulation;

E) protective;


72. Which statement from the following is incorrect:

A) The central part of the immune system consists of red bone marrow, spleen, thymus, and the peripheral part of the lymph nodes and tonsils;

В. The human immune system consists of central and peripheral organs;

C) The central organs of the immune system are red bone marrow, thymus;

D) peripheral organs of the immune system include lymph nodes, tonsils, spleen;

E) The central part of the immune system is red bone marrow;


73. In humans, lymph is formed as follows:

A) Some of the constituent parts of the blood plasma penetrate through the walls of capillaries from the blood, forming tissue fluid;

B) The return system, the poke, secretes excess fluid from the blood, which is transported through the renal veins to the lymph nodes;

C) tubular bones contain connective tissue that constantly secretes lymphatic fluid;

D) the portal system of the liver performs blood filtration and lymph formation;

E) tubular bones contain bone marrow, which constantly secretes lymphatic fluid;


74. What is the role of blood circulation?

A) transport, respiratory, nutritional, excretory, thermoregulatory, maintenance of homeostasis, protective, humoral regulation;

В. transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide, the transfer of nutrients, the elimination of decomposition products, the formation of tissue fluid;

C) filtration and disinfection of tissue fluid, transport, respiratory, nourishing, excretory, thermoregulatory, maintaining homeostasis;

D) excretory, thermoregulatory, maintaining homeostasis;

E) disinfection of tissue fluid, transport, respiratory, nourishing, excretory, thermoregulatory, maintaining homeostasis;


75. In mammals, arterial blood flows through the veins, and venous blood through the arteries:

A) in the pulmonary circulation;

В. in the great circulation of blood;

C) in the portal system of the liver;

D) with extrasystoleal circulation;

E) blood is pumped into the atria;


76. Which artery contains venous blood?

A) pulmonary;

B) renal;

C) hepatic;

D) sleepy;

E) venous;


77. Conditions for cardiac performance:

A) blood supply of the heart, rhythm of work, automatic heart muscle;

B) rhythm of heart contractions, constant physical exertion;

C) blood supply to the heart, automatic heart muscle, moderate exercise;

D) blood supply of the heart, the rhythm of work;

E) not the rhythm of heart contractions, constant physical exertion;


78. The decrease in the number of leukocytes in the human body is called:

A) leukopenia;

Anemia;

C) leukocytosis;

D) phagocytosis;

E) leukemia;


79. During the general relaxation phase of the heart, its valves:

A) Semilunar - closed, sash - open;

В. semilunar - open, sash - closed;

C) semilunar - open, sash - open;

D) semilunar - closed, sash - closed;

E) semilunar - closed, folding - absent;


80. Electrocardiogram reflects electrical activity:

A) all parts of the heart;

В. pacemaker (pacemaker) of the heart;

C) pacemaker and cardiac conduction system;

D) left atrium and left ventricle of the heart;

E) right atrium and left ventricle of the heart;


81. Where is the respiratory center located:

A) the medulla;

В. lungs, spleen;

C) cerebellum, pituitary;

D) bark of the big hemispheres;

E) subcortical layer;


82. What muscles are involved in respiratory movements?

A) aperture;

B) intercostal;

C) dorsal;

D) abdominal;

E) lumbar;


83. From which germ layer in the process of ontogeny is the respiratory system formed?

A) endoderm;

В. mesoderm;

C) ectoderm;

D) derma;

E) exoderm;


84. Which of the following statements regarding the process of digestion is incorrect:

A) Nutrients are absorbed into the tissue fluid and blooD)

B) digestion is a complex physiological process;

C) during digestion, food undergoes chemical and physical changes;

D) nutrients are absorbed into the blood or lymph;

E) non-nutrients are absorbed into the tissue fluid and blood;


85. Functions of the digestive system:

A) motor, secretory, suction;

B) production of enzymes, absorption of nutrients, excretion of waste products;

C) mechanical, chemical, excretory, organic;

D) food movement, enzymatic, excretory, absorption;

E) not the movement of food, enzymatic, excretory, absorption;


86. The walls of the stomach are not digested with digestive juice, because:

A) its inside covers a layer of mucus;

В. in the gastric juice there are no proteolytic enzymes;

C) digestive enzymes are not able to hydrolyze proteins;

D) Digestive enzymes are released as inactive proenzymes;

E) non-digestive enzymes are released as inactive proenzymes;


87. In humans, proteins are digested by enzymes that are secreted:

A) in the stomach, pancreas, in the small intestine;

B) salivary glands, liver, small intestine;

C) salivary glands, pancreas, liver;

D) in the stomach, small intestine, salivary glands;

E) sweat glands, pancreas, liver;


88. The thin intestine includes:

A) duodenal ulcer, skinny, ileal;

В. duodenal, thin, transverse;

C) lean, iliac, colon;

D) duodenal ulcer, blind, colon;

E) ileum, ileum, colon;

89. The large intestine consists of:

A) blind, colonic, straight;

B) blind, vermiform process;

C) blind, descending, straight;

D) blind, sigmoid, descending;

E) gut, sigmoid, descending;


90. The colon consists of the following sections:

A) ascending, descending, transverse, sigmoid;

B) ascending, descending, transverse, longitudinal;

C) ascending, sigmoid, descending, longitudinal;

D) transverse, sigmoid, ascending, longitudinal;

E) longitudinal, descending, transverse, sigmoid;


91. The largest digestive gland in the human body:

A) liver;

В) pancreas;

C) thymus;

D) parathyroid;

E) kidney;


92. Functions of the pancreas:

A) splits proteins, fats and carbohydrates, produces insulin;

B) digestive, protective, produces insulin, peksin;

C) participates in the hormonal regulation of the body;

D) protective, supports the immune system;

E) participates in the hormonal regulation of the organ;


93. An appendix is ​​a process:

A) cecum;

B) colon;

C) duodenum;

D) intracellular and abdominal;

E) bile duct;


94. What type of digestion in the small intestine?

A) abdominal and parietal;

В) abdominal not near-wall;

C) intracellular and tissue;

D) intracellular and abdominal;

E) intracellular and parietal;


95. The process of metabolism and energy is a combination of:

A) Catabolism and anabolism;

B) catabolism, energy metabolism;

C) dissimilation, catabolism;

D) assimilation and anabolism;

E) anabolism and dissimilation;


96. What substances during absorption get into the lymph first, and with it into the blood?

A) glycerin, fatty acids;

B) fats, glucose;

C) amino acids, glucose;

D) glucose, glycerin;

E) carbohydrates, fats;


97. What are the biologically active substances called, which must necessarily come with food, since their deficiency in the body leads to various diseases?

A) vitamins;

B) hormones;

C) enzymes;

D) carbohydrates;

E) adrenaline;

98. What human organs are involved in the removal of harmful substances from the body?

A) skin, lungs, end part of the digestive system, urinary system;

В. liver, stomach, kidneys, heart, spleen, trachea, lungs, large intestine;

C) lungs and ureters, spleen, trachea, lungs, large intestine;

D) kidney, bladder, heart, spleen, trachea, lungs, large intestine;

E) bones, lungs, end part of the digestive system, urinary system;


99. What organs belong to the urinary system of a person?

A) kidney, urinary tract;

B) liver, kidney, bladder;

C) lungs, ureters;

D) skin, lungs, kidneys;

E) bones, skin, lungs, kidneys;


100. Structural and functional unit of the kidneys:

A) nephron;

B) ureter;

С) Lokhanka;

D) collective ducts;

E) bladder;


101. What concentration of a substance increases with the formation of urine?

A) urea;


B) proteins;

C) hemoglobin;

D) sugar;

E) glucose;


102. Which process in the kidney nephron is the least selective?

A) filtration;

В) secretion;

C) reabsorption;

D) movement;

E) suction;


103. Ultrafiltration leads to:

A) glomerular filtration;

B) the concentration of bile;

C) salivation;

D) sweating;

E) selection;


104. Primary urine differs from secondary urine in composition:

A) resembles blood plasma, but without proteins;

B) water, minerals, vitamins, glucose;

C) water, uric acid, urea, minerals;

D) water, minerals, vitamins, amino acids;

E) glucose, minerals, vitamins, amino acids;


105. The center of a reflex of urination is in:

A) spinal cord;

В) medulla oblongata;

C) middle brain;

D) intermediate brain;

E) brain;


106. What hormones endocrine gland causes a decrease in urination?

A) adrenal glands;

В) piphysis;

C) thyroid;

D) pancreas;

E) hypothalamus;


107. Human skin performs the following functions:

A) protective, sensitive, thermoregulatory;

B) does not participate in the absorption of nutrients;

C) participates in the absorption of nutrients;

D) not excretory, not respiratory function;

E) exchange of red blood cells between organs;

108. Human skin is formed by:

A) cuticle, proper skin, subcutaneous fatty tissue;

B) cuticle, dermis, epidermis, subcutaneous fat;

C) epidermis, derma, proper skin, subcutaneous fat;

D) horny layer of the epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous fat;

E) endodermis, derma, proper skin, subcutaneous fat;


109. In which layer of skin are accumulations of sweat and sebaceous glands, hair bags;

A) proper skin;

B) upper layer of the epidermis;

C) subcutaneous adipose tissue;

D) in the lower layer of the epidermis;

E) extracellular substance;


110. Derivatives of the skin include:

B) sweat and sebaceous glands;

C) mammary gland lymph;

D) hair and nails, blood;

E) sweat glands, salivary;
111. The total area of ​​the skin of an adult person is:

A) up to 1.5m2;

B) 1.5 - 2 m2;

С) 4-5m2;

D) 2.5 -3m2;

E) up to 0.5 m2;


112. Skin burns can occur:

A) when touched by fire and under the influence of sunlight;

B) under the action of certain organic substances and hot objects;

C) under the action of warm air, wind, urogan;

D) under the action of stroking, massage, shock;

E) in contact with cold water and under the influence of rolling;


113. Which of the following statements regarding skin pigment is correct?

I- pigment synthesized in connective tissue cells

II - skin pigment protects against mutagenic action of solar radiation.

A) only II;

B) only I;

C) I and II;

D) IV - VI;

E) II - III;


114. Which of the following statements regarding human skin is true?

I - skin - organ of tactile, pain, temperature sensitivity;

II - the skin is the organ of the body's adaptation to changing environmental conditions.

A) only I;

B) only II;

C) I and II;

D) IV - VI;

E) II - III;


115. What do the sex glands produce?

A) germ cells and sex hormones;

B) germ cells and salivary glands;

C) sex hormones and sweat glands;

D) fluid secretion and sex cells;

E) sex hormones and fluid secretions;


116. What are the stages in human development and structural features of his body can be attributed to humans to mammals?

A) laying the chord, the central nervous system, the presence of milk teeth, nutrition mother's milk;

B) formation of blastula zygote, and then gastrula, the presence of milk teeth, feeding on mother's milk;

C) the presence at the germinal stage of development of the chord and gill slits;

D) the presence of fetal membranes, the development of the chord and gill slits;

E) not laying the chord, the central nervous system, the presence of milk teeth, nutrition mother's milk;


117. Which of the listed hormones are involved in the regulation of reproductive function in mammals?

A) estrogens and androgens;

B) thyroid hormones;

C) brain hormones;

D) prothoracotropic harmonic;

E) Subcortical hormones;


118. In which gland the sex cells are formed in men:

A) testicles;

B) hypothalamus;

C) thymus;

D) ovaries;

E) sperm;


119. Progesterone is released:

A) yellow body;

B) Graaf bubble;

C) ripening egg cell;

D) ovulating ovum;

E) red body;


120. In which cavity the development of the human embryo occurs;

A) uterus;

В. small pelvis;

C) vagina;

D) abdominal cavity;

E) large pelvis;


121. Which of the following forms of exchange between the fetus and the mother through the placenta in mammals is not selective?

A) the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide;

B) food absorption and metabolism;

C) the exchange of hormones and the absorption of food;

D) exchange of antibodies A and B blood groups;

E) exchange of antibodies B and B blood groups;


122. Functions of the placenta:

A) gas exchange;

B) supporting;

C) secretory;

D) motor;

E) transport;


123. What organ of a person functions only before its birth?

A) placenta;

В. lungs;

C) buds;


D) thymus;

E) heart;


124. Inherited disease due to chromosomal abnormality:

A) Down's disease

B) AIDS;

C) malaria;

D) leishmaniasis;

E) hepatitis;


125. What is the name of the middle part of the tubular bone ...

A) diaphysis;

В. metaphysis;

C) epiphysis;

D) syndesmosis;

E) adentis;


126. What is the name of the extended end of the tubular bone ...

A) epiphysis;

В. metaphysis;

C) diaphysis;

D) syndesmosis;

E) adentis;


127. What is the section of tubular bone between the middle part and the ends ...

A) metaphysis;

В. diaphysis;

C) epiphysis;

D) syndesmosis;

E) adentis;


128. What is the name of the end of the tubular bone, located closer to the body ...

A) proximal epiphysis;

B) distal epiphysis;

C) diaphysis;

D) metaphysis;

E) proximal addentis;


129. What cells produce the deposition of bone matter ...

A) osteoblasts;

B) osteocytes;

C) osteoclasts;

D) osteons;

E) Ostiocides;


130. What are called bone cells ...

A) osteocytes;

B) osteoblasts;

C) osteoclasts;

D) osteons;

E) othiocides;


131. What cells produce bone destruction ...

A) osteoclasts;

B) osteoblasts;

C) osteocytes;

D) osteons;

E) Ostiocytes;


132. What type of knee does ...

A) condyl;

B) spherical;

C) walnut;

D) saddle;

E) almond-shaped;


133. What type of joint has three axes of rotation ...

A) spherical;

B) ellipsoid;

C) saddle;

D) blovidny;

E) almond-shaped;


134. Which bone is part of the cranial skull ...

A) lattice;

В) malar;

C) palatine;

D) Nosova;

E) oral;
135. How many bones are included in pasterns ...

A) 5

В) 3


С. 4

D) 6


E) 7
136. How many bones are included in the wrist ...

A) 8


В. 2

С. 4


D) 10

E) 7
137. Which muscle flexes the shoulder ...

A) biceps;

В) big round;

C) front cog;

D) rhomboid;

E) small round;

138. Getting into the blood, adrenaline causes:

A) constriction of all vessels, except vessels of the heart and brain;

B) the ministry of all blood vessels;

C) expansion of all vessels;

D) has no effect on the lumen of blood vessels

E) expansion of all vessels, except vessels of the heart and brain;

139. Significance of the nervous system:

A) ensuring the coordinated work of all organs and systems of the body;

B) not implementing the orientation of the organism in the external environment and adaptive reactions to its changes;

C) is not the material basis of mental activity: speech, thinking, social behavior;

D) not ensuring the coordinated work of all organs and body systems;

E) Ensuring coordinated work only for individual bodies;
140. The human breath is peculiar to:

A) automaticity, dependence on the content of carbon dioxide in the blood, reflex regulation, dependence on receptors for stretching the lungs;

B) automaticity, dependence on the content of carbon dioxide in the blood, dependence on receptors for stretching the lungs;

C) independence from the cortical regions of the brain, dependence on the content of carbon dioxide in the blood;

D) automaticity, dependence on receptors for stretching the lungs, dependence on receptors for stretching the lungs;

E) dependence on the content of carbon dioxide in the blood, dependence on receptors for stretching the lungs;


141. Glands that have ducts and excrete their secrets on the surface of the body or in the body cavity or in the body cavity are called:

A) exocrine, endocrine, mixed glands;

B) endocrine glands, exocrine glands;

C) mixed glands, endocrine glands;

D) mixed glands, exocrine glands;

E) Endocrine glands, salivary glands, sweat;


142. What foods are formed during the breakdown of complex carbohydrates?

A) glucose;

B) fatty acids;

C) amino acids;

D) glycerin;

E) lipase;


143. Highlight inorganic cell compounds:

A) water, sodium and potassium salts;

B) water, carbohydrates, fats;

C) nucleic acids, fats;

D) carbohydrates, fats and proteins;

E) glucose, sodium and potassium salts;


144. The main parts of the cell:

A) cytoplasm, nucleus, membrane;

B) nucleus, chromosome, cytoplasm;

C) cytoplasm, membrane, nucleolus;

D) Ribasomes, Golgi apparatus;

E) nucleus, golgi apparatus, cytoplasm;


145. Which of these organelles are located in the cytoplasm?

A) ribosomes, nucleus, Golgi complex, cell center, mitochondria;

В) Retina, mitochondria, membrane, endoplasmic reticulum, cell center;

C) Intercellular substance, nucleoli, chromosomes, ribosomes;

D) Chlorophyll, nucleus, cytoplasm, golgi apparatus;

E) extracellular substance, chlorophyll, nucleolus, mitochondria;


146. Of the neurons is formed:

A) the entire nervous system;

B) only the spinal cord;

C) yellow bone marrow;

D) only nerve fibers;

E) only cellular substance;


147. What are the physiologically active substances secreted by the endocrine glands?

A) hormones;

B) enzymes;

C) vitamins;

D) lipids;

E) glucose;


148. What organ system is the heart?

A) circulatory;

В. excretory;

C) respiratory;

D) nervous;

E) educational;


149. Which of these examples is the result of nervous regulation?

A) pulling the hand off during a burn;

B) blanching of the skin from cold;

C) sweating;

D) redness of the skin in the heat;

E) salivation;

150. What is nerve tissue built from?

A) from neurons;

B) from epithelial cells;

C) from red blood cells;

D) from intercellular substance;

E) from blood cells;


151. Where are the main properties of the nervous tissue most fully described?

A) excitability and conductivity;

В) only excitability;

C) excitability and contractility;

D) excitability, contractility and conductivity;

E) contractility, conductivity;


152. The path of excitement along the reflex arc:

A) the sensory neuron - the intercalary neuron - the motor neuron - the working organ;

В) an intercalary neuron - a sensitive neuron - a motor neuron - a working organ;

C) working body - sensitive neuron - insertional neuron - motor neuron;

D) working body - sensitive neuron - insertional neuron - motor neuron;

E) non-sensitive neuron - intercalated neuron - motor neuron - working organ;


153. Unusual function of the spinal cord:

A) excretory;

В. reflex;

C) conductor;

D) protective;

E) additional;


154. The activity of internal organs is enhanced if the excitation enters through:

A) sympathetic nerve;

В) Somatic nerve;

C) parasympathetic nerve;

D) for all these nerves;

E) Parasympathetic nerve;


155. What is the central nervous system formed from?

A) from the spinal cord, brain, and nerves extending from them;

B) from the brain;

C) from the spinal cord and brain;

D) from nerve nodes and nerves;

E) from the spleen, brain and nerves extending from them;


156. What is formed from the body of neurons?

A) gray matter;

B) white matter;

C) medulla;

D) nerves;

E) Subcortical substance;

157. Where are the centers of regulation of respiration and cardiac activity?

A) in the medulla;

В) in the spinal cord;

C) in the cerebellum;

D) in the anterior part of the brain;

E) in the subcortical layer;


158. Point out the peripheral nervous system:

A) Nervous nodes and nerves;

B) spinal cord and its nerves;

C) the brain and its nerves;

D) brain and spinal cord;

E) brain and neurons;


159. The highest part of the central nervous system is:

A) brain cortex;

В) Spinal cord;

C) cerebellum;

D) midbrain;

E) medulla;
160. Where is the excitation of the motor neuron axon?

A) to the executive body;

В) to the intercalary neuron;

C) to the receptor;

D) to the central nervous system;

E) to peripheral;


161. Protective and nutritional function for the neuron perform:

A) cell-companion;

B) epithelial cells;

C) Intercellular substance;

D) body of the neuron;

E) blood vessels;


162. What is the origin of the posterior roots of the spinal cord?

A) from axons of sensitive neurons;

B) from dendrites;

C) from the bodies of neurons;

D) from axons of motor neurons;

E) from the nervous system;


163. From which nerve cells are nerve nodes formed?

A) of all types;

В) sensitive;

C) motor and sensitive;

D) intercalary;

E) Intermediate;


164. Which of these organs is regulated by the somatic nervous system?

A) skeletal muscle;

B) heart;

C) stomach;

D) gonads;

E) sweat glands;


165. What organs does the somatic nervous system innervates?

A) muscle;

B) kidney;

C) liver;

D) heart;

E) stomach;


166. In representatives of what class of animals has the cerebellum been most developed?

A) birds;

B) amphibians;

C) reptiles;

D) mammals;

E) plants;


167. Where are external stimuli converted into nerve impulses?

A) in receptors;

В) in the synapses;

C) in the bodies of neurons;

D) in executive bodies;

E) in organs;


168.In the spinal cord biotoki come on:

A) axon sensitive neuron;

B) dendrite;

С) axon motor neuron;

D) for all processes of Nero;

E) for not all shoots;


169. What is the active element of the musculoskeletal system?

A) muscle;

В) bones;

C) joints;

D) ligaments;

E) skeleton;


170. What enters the locomotor system?

A) skeleton and skeletal muscle;

B) muscle of the heart and its nerves;

C) gastric muscles, skeleton;

D) skeletal muscle only;

E) only muscle, skeleton;


171. What here refers to the blood-forming organs?

A) red bone marrow;

В) heart and blood vessels;

C) spleen, liver;

D) yellow bone marrow;

E) lungs and bronchi;


172. Identify flat bones:

A) frontal and pelvic bones;

B) Hand bones and foot bones

C) humerus;

D) parietal bones and spine;

E) spine and bones of the hand;


173. Which of these bones form the skeleton of the trunk?

1- spine;

2 pelvic bones;

3 ribs and sternum;

4- collarbone and scapula;

5th femur;

A) 1,2,3;

B) 1,2,3,4,

С) 1,2,3,5;

D) 1; 4; 7;

E) 1; 5; 8;
174. What are the bones of the upper limbs girdle?

A) scapulae and clavicle;

B) pelvic bones;

C) bones of the shoulder and forearm;

D) bones of the cervical vertebrae;

E) bones of the lower limbs;

175. What bones are involved in the formation of the shoulder joint?

A) scapula, collarbone and humerus;

B) pelvic bones, sternum;

C) humerus and forearm bones;

D) humerus and sternum;

E) scapula, humerus;


176. Which of these bones are tubular bones?

A) Femoral and tibia

B) pelvic bones;

C) bones of the skull and vertebrae;

D) scapula and sternum;

E) humerus;


177. What are the paired bones of the brain section of the skull?

A) temporal and parietal;

В) occipital and frontal;

C) frontal and parietal;

D) frontal and temporal;

E) frontal and occipital;


178. What belt of the lower extremities are:

A) pelvic bones;

В) Thigh bones;

C) Shin bones;

D) all the bones of the leg;

E) all bones of the hands;


179. The bones of the upper limbs:

A) The bones of the forearm, shoulder, and hanD)

B) Scapula and bones of shoulder, neck;

C) bones of the shoulder and collarbone, neck;

D) clavicle and scapula, skull;

E) bones of the head and neck and hands;


180. The modified bones of a person are associated with erect walking:

A) spine and pelvic bones;

B) bones of the skull;

C) scapula and collarbone;

D) bones of forearm and shoulder;

E) bones of the keys and skull;


181. Where do leukocytes form?

A) Red bone marrow, lymph nodes, spleen.

B) yellow bone marrow, lymph nodes, spleen.

C) liver, red bone marrow, lymphatic system

D) spleen, liver, pancreas.

E) kidneys, liver, heart, spleen, stomach, bone marrow.

182. Which of the following does not apply to the internal environment of the body?

A) digestive tract;

B) blood plasma;

C) lymph;

D) tissue fluid;

E) red blood cells;


183. Under what conditions below does blood coagulation occur?

A) only when turning fibrinogen into fibrin;

B) in the presence of calcium salts in it and in contact with air;

C) only in contact with air;

D) only in contact with carbon dioxide;

E) only when in contact with oxygen;


184. What are the names of red blood cells without a nucleus?

A) red blood cells;

B) leukocytes;

C) platelets;

D) lymphocytes;

E) Hormones;


185. Which of these cells are capable of phagocytosis?

A) leukocytes;

B) platelets;

C) is not one of them;

D) red blood cells;

E) lymphocytes;


186.What here refers to the blood-forming organ?

A) heart;

B) spleen;

C) liver;

D) red bone marrow;

E) kidney;


187. What is the name of blood enriched with oxygen?

A) arterial;

B) venous;

C) mixed;

D) capillary;

E) cordial;

188. The system of blood circulation is the path of blood from:

A) of the left ventricle, in all arteries, capillaries and veins to the right atrium;

B) the right ventricle along the pulmonary artery and capillaries, the pulmonary vein to the left atrium;

C) left atrium, through arteries, capillaries and veins to the right ventricle;

D) of a left auricle, on capillaries and veins to a right ventricle;

E) left atrium, arteries, capillaries to the right ventricle;


189. What should be introduced into the blood of a person who has an infectious disease?

A) antibodies;

B) blood plasma;

C) antigen;

D) saline;

E) hormonal solution;

190. In which of the answers the phases of the cardiac cycle are described correctly?

A) contraction of the atria, then contraction of the ventricle and general relaxation;

B) relaxation, ventricular contraction, and then atrial contraction and blood flow;

C) the simultaneous contraction of all chambers, and then the general relaxation and adrenaline rush;

D) blood or saline are released into the internal environment of the body;

E) Simultaneous reduction of not all cameras, and then - general relaxation and adrenaline rush;


191. Hold your breath for a whilE) What do you observe and how do you explain it?

A) nervous regulation;

B) humoral regulation;

C) neuro-humoral regulation;

D) regulation in general;

E) conditioned and unconditioned reflex;


192. Where is the sneezing reflex arc described?

A) nasal cavity receptors — centripetal neuron — respiratory center — centrifugal neuron — respiratory muscles;

В) nasal cavity receptors - respiratory center - lungs;

C) respiratory center - centrifugal neuron - respiratory muscles;

D) respiratory center - centrifugal - respiratory muscles;

E) Oral receptors - respiratory center - lungs;


193. As a result, takes a deep breath?

A) contraction of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles;

В) contraction of the diaphragm and relaxation of the intercostal muscles;

C) relaxation of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles;

D) muscle contraction of the lungs;

E) contraction and relaxation of the intercostal muscles;

194. The path of the air to the lungs with proper breathing:

A) nasal cavity - nasopharynx - larynx - trachea - bronchi - pulmonary vesicles;

В. oral cavity - nasal cavity - nasopharynx - larynx - trachea - bronchi - pulmonary vesicles;

C) nasal cavity - nasopharynx - larynx - bronchi - trachea - pulmonary vesicles;

D) nasal cavity - nasopharynx - larynx - trachea - pulmonary blisters - bronchi;

E) oral cavity - nasopharynx - larynx - trachea - pulmonary blisters - bronchi;


195. The vital capacity of the lungs of an adult is:

A) 3000 -3500 cu. cm;

В) 500 - 1000 cubic meters cm;

С) 1500-2000 cu. cm;

D) 5000 -5500 cu. cm;

E) 1500 - 3000 cu. cm;


196. In what order are the digestive organs?

A) oral cavity - esophagus - stomach - small intestine - large intestine - rectum;

B) oral cavity - esophagus - stomach - large intestine - small intestine - rectum;

C) The oral cavity - the stomach - the esophagus - the large intestine - the small intestine - the rectum;

D) oral cavity - esophagus - stomach - large intestine - small intestine - rectum;

E) nasal - cavity - esophagus - stomach - large intestine - small intestine - rectum;


197. Structural and functional unit of the kidneys:

A) nephron;

В. Lokhanka;

C) ureter;

D) squirrels;

E) neuron;

198. In what part of the digestive tract does the complete splitting of -

A) in the duodenum complete?

B) in the stomach;

C) in the small intestine;

D) in the colon;

E) anal atrost;


199. In which part of the digestive tract is the absorption of digested food into the blood?

A) in the small intestine;

B) in the stomach;

C) in the duodenum;

D) in the colon;

E) anal atrost;

200. The liver secretes into the digestive tract:

A) bile;


B) pancreas;

C) saliva;

D) hormones;

E) gastric juice;


201. Highlight Pavlovsky method of studying salivary reflexes:

A) the imposition of fistula;

B) radiography;

C) sounding;

D) radio pills;

E) radionuclides;


202. Frequent digestive disorders of fatty foods are primarily associated with abnormal function:

C) liver;

A) stomach;

B) kidney;

D) colon;

E) small intestine;


203. An important organ of digestion, which is not included in the digestive canal?

A) pancreas;

В) Teeth and tongue;

C) rectum;

D) esophagus;

E) large intestine;


204. Progesterone is released:

A) yellow body;

B) graph bubble;

C) ripening egg cell;

D) ovulating ovum;

E) uterus placenta;


205. The main importance of water for the cells of the body?

A) the main medium of biochemical reactions;

В) main building material;

C) gives it elasticity;

D) solvent for inorganic substances;

E) the main medium of chemical reaction;


206. What organs are involved in heat generation?

A) muscle;

B) kidney;

C) blood vessels;

D) heart;

E) liver;


207. All glands of the human body are divided into:

A) exocrine, endocrine;

B) exocrine, mixed;

C) exocrine gland;

D) endocrine glands;

E) Endocrine, mixed;


208. Where is the structure of the skin correctly indicated?

A) epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue;

B) dermis, hypoderm;

C) dermis, epidermis, subcutaneous tissue;

D) subcutaneous tissue and epidermis;

E) exoderm and endoderm and dermis;


209. What way does the urine go from the moment of its filtration to excretion from the body?

A) pelvis - ureter - bladder - urethra;

В) ureter - pelvis - bladder - urethra;

C) pelvis - urethra - bladder - ureter;

D) urethra - bladder - ureter;

E) ureter - bladder - urethra;


210. What layers of the skin perform a protective function against external infections?

A) only the epidermis;

B) dermis and epidermis;

C) subcutaneous tissue;

D) all salts;

E) exoderm;


211. What makes the skin elastic?

A) derma;

B) epidermis;

C) subcutaneous tissue;

D) dermis and epidermis;

E) exoderm;


212. Determine the composition of the urine of a person suffering from diabetes:

A) water, urea, mineral salts, carbohydrates;

B) water, mineral salts, urea, sucrose;

C) Urea, water, salts, blood plasma, sucrose;

D) urea, salt, water, blood cells, glucose;

E) water, mineral salts, carbohydrates, glucose;


213. Authority that is not included in the excretory system:

A) salivary glands;

B) skin;

C) buds;


D) lungs;

E) sweat glands;


214. The mechanism of thermoregulation does not apply:

A) urine excretion;

В) shivering cold;

C) sweating;

D) respiratory movement;

E) salivation;

215. What is the difference between primary urine and blood plasma by chemical composition?

A) lack of proteins;

B) glucose content;

C) the absence of glands;

D) urea content;

E) lack of lipids;


216. Hygienic requirements for clothing material:

A) from natural raw materials, lightness, breathability;

B) light synthetic with colored substances;

C) The density of the material is not higher than the density of the fabric;

D) high strength and hardness;

E) synthetic fabric is highly flammable;


217. Organs emitting the final cleavage products of protein molecules:

A) skin and kidneys;

B) salivary glands;

C) lungs;

D) pancreas;

E) Liver and spleen;


218. What is the female sex cell called?

A) ovum;


B) sperm;

C) ovaries;

D) zygote;

E) egg;


219. School period of a child:

A) From 6 to 17 - 18;

B) from 3 years to 6 years;

C) from birth to one year;

D) from 1 to 3 years;

E) from 6 to 16 - 18;

220. What is the result of fertilization?

A) zygote;

B) female cell;

C) sperm cell;

D) placenta;

E) child;


221. What develops from a fertilized egg?

A) the germ cell;

B) sperm;

C) child;

D) zygote;

E) female cell;


222. What causes the development of secondary male sexual characteristics?

A) testicular hormones;

B) ovarian hormones;

C) growth hormones;

D) sperm;

E) Enzymes;


223. The products of the external secretion of the gonads in men are:

A) sperm;

B) egg cell;

C) testicular hormones;

D) ovarian hormones;

E) growth hormones;

224. Determine the onset of menstruation during the 28-day cycle, if the last cycle began on the 10th day:

A) 8 number;

B) 10 numbers;

С) 3 numbers;

D) 1 number;

E) 6 number;


225. What is the phenomenon of accelerated physical development of children of our time?

A) acceleration;

B) assimilation;

C) degradation;

D) Urbonization;

E) placenta;


226. Periods of active development of speech, mental activity of a child:

A) from 3 years to 6 years;

B) from birth to one year;

C) from 1 to 3 years;

D) from 6 to 17 - 18;

E) from 6 to 13;


227. Preschool period of the child:

A) from 3 years to 6 years;

B) from birth to one year;

C) from 1 to 3 years;

D) from 6 to 17 - 18;

E) from 6 to 13;

228. How long does the formation of the embryo shell (bubble) coincide with?

A) fetal period;

B) germinal period;

C) from birth to one year;

D) education zygotes;

E) the period of aging;

229. Placental formation occurs in:

A) fetal period;

B) germinal period;

C) period from birth to one year;

D) the time of zygote formation;

E) from 1 year to 3 years;


230. The child’s infant period:

A) from 1 year to 3 years;

B) from birth to one year;

C) from 1.5 years to 3 years;

D) from 6 years old to 17-18 years old;

E) from 3 years to 6 years;


231. Due to the simultaneous maturation, fertilization in the development of two eggs, it is possible:

A) development of twins; boys and girls;

B) the death of the embryo;

C) development of twin girls, like two drops of water;

D) development of twin boys, like two drops of water;

E) the development of only one child;


232. Which parent can be a donor for your child?

A) any of the parents with a common blood group;

B) only a father with a positive Rh factor;

C) only mother with a negative rhesus factor;

D) is always both biological parents;

E) only adoptive parents;


233. Progesterone is released:

A) yellow body;

B) Graaf bubble;

C) ripening egg cell;

D) ovulating ovum;

E) red body;


234. Where are the photosensitive eye receptors?

A) in the retina;

В. in the lens;

C) in the iris;

D) in the albumen;

E) in the iris;


235. What are the protective membranes of the eye?

A) protein coat and cornea;

В. retina and iris;

C) lens and pupil;

D) choroid;

E) intraocular apple;


236. In which part of the analyzer does the difference in stimuli begin?

A) in receptors;

V. in sensory nerves;

C) in the spinal cord;

D) in the cerebral cortex;

E) in the auricle;


237. Pigmentation of which part of the eye determines its color?

A) iris;


Retinal retina;

C) lens of the eye;

D) eye coat;

E) albumin;


238. The place of the projection of the object in the eyeball:

A) retina;

B) lens;

C) pupil;

D) protein shell

E) ragovitsa;

239. In which part of the ear are sound-sensitive receptors?

A) in the cochlea;

В) in the auditory ossicles;

C) in eardrum;

D) in the auditory area;

E) in the temporal area;


240.Where are the conductive bones located?

A) in the middle ear;

B) in the cochlea;

C) in the cerebral cortex;

D) in the outer ear;

E) in the posterior ear;


241. What external stimuli distinguish receptors of the nasal cavity?

A) odors;

В) Taste;

C) shape of the subject;

D) temperature;

E) color objects;


242. The cause of myopia in children:

A) loss of lens flexibility;

B) elongated eyeball shape;

C) nerve inhibition in the visual zone;

D) loss of cornea flexibility;

E) fatigue of the optic nerve;


243.Where is the formation of colored visual images?

A) in the visual zone;

B) in the iris;

C) in the optic nerve;

D) in the auditory area;

E) in sticks and cones;

244.The founder of the method of general anesthesia:

A) N.I. Pirogov;

В.A)A) Vishnevsky;

С.V.P. Filatov;

D)I.M. Sechenov;

E) S. Pavlov;

245.Where is the conversion of oscillations of sound waves into biocurrents?

A) in snail receptors;

B) in skin receptors;

C) in the auditory area;

D) in the auditory nerves;

E) in the auditory ossicles;


246. In which part of the brain is the image of the mother created?

A) in the frontal zone of the cerebral cortex;

В) in the visual and auditory areas;

C) in the subcortical zone of the cerebral cortex;

D) in the parietal cortex;

E) only in the visual area of ​​the brain;


247. ​​What colors and their combinations have the most favorable effect on the higher nervous activity of a person?

A) blue and green;

B) red and black;

С) blue and yellow;

D) their clarity and brightness;

E) red and white;


248. The ability to synthesize antibodies have:

A) B lymphocytes;

B) T lymphocytes;

C) T and B lymphocytes;

D) T and B lymphocytes and macrophages;

E) T-macrophages;


249. What are the possible causes of hearing loss?

A) damage to the auditory nerve;

B) inflammation and damage to the inner ear;

C) damage to the optic nerve;

D) sulfuric plug;

E) nervous fatigue;


250. How does the analyzer determine the shape of objects at a distance?

A) view and touch;

В) Hearing and touch;

С) Muscular and Vision;

D) tactile body of balance;

E) hearing and sight;


251. Glands that have ducts and excrete their secrets on the surface of the body or in the body cavity or in the body cavity are called:

A) exocrine;

B) endocrine;

C) mixed glands;

D) sweat glands;

E) salivary glands;


252. What is the reflex observed in the dog on the first bell at the beginning of the development of a conditioned reflex?

A) unconditional orientation reflex;

B) conditioned orienting reflex;

C) unconditional defensive reflex;

D) only unconditional food reflex;

E) conditioned reflex;


253.Cat at the ringing of dishes runs into the kitchen. It:

A) conditioned reflex;

В) unconditional orienting reflex;

C) unconditioned reflex;

D) instinct;

E) unconditioned food reflex;


254. Who is the founder of the doctrine of higher nervous activity:

A) P. P. Pavlov;

В) A.I. Kozlov;

С) N. I. Lunin;

D) N.I. Pirogov;

E) P.M. Sechenov;


255. A normal teenager's sleep should continue no less than:

A) 8 hours;

В) 6:00;

C) 10 hours;

D) 5 hours;

E) 24 hours;


256. What is an example of elementary intellectual activity?

A) waiting for the predator of its prey in ambush;

B) body reaction with cold water;

C) feeding the animals of their young;

D) rescuing their young during danger;

E) pulling off a hand when in contact with a hot object;


257. The reaction of withdrawing a hand from a glass with hot tea is:

A) unconditional defensive reflex;

В) unconditional oriented reflex;

C) conditioned reflex;

D) conditioned defensive reflex;

E) unconditioned food reflex;


258. Features of the manifestation of higher nervous activity of man:

A) abstract thinking;

B) conditioned reflexes;

C) memory and elementary rational activity;

D) hysterical state;

E) unconditioned reflexes;


259. What function of the nervous system is associated with higher nervous activity?

A) forebrain;

The cerebellum;

C) intermediate;

D) midbrain;

E) spinal cord;


260. Memory is a process:

A) only the accumulation and storage of information (experience);

В) not reproducing information (experience);

C) not perception of the environment;

D) complete lack of information;

E) nervous condition;


261. What is an example of figurative memory here?

A) song performance;

В) writing experience;

C) reading a book;

D) drawing a picture;

E) Experience knitting sweaters;


262. The conditioned reflex is produced on the basis of:

A) unconditioned reflexes;

В) approximate unconditioned reflex;

C) approximate conditioned reflex;

D) conditioned reflex;

E) former conditioned reflexes;

263. Indicate the reason for the development of internal inhibition of conditioned reflexes:

A) multiple refusal of the conditioned stimulus with the unconditioned one;

В) severe pain;

C) multiple reinforcement of a conditioned stimulus with an unconditioned one;

D) They are produced once and for all;

E) strong foreign irritant;


264. What is characteristic only for a person?

A) generalization of their experiences and feelings;

В) the use of experience in new situations;

C) synthesis of their fears and feelings;

D) generalization of concepts about objects and their properties;

E) memorizing and reproducing experience;


265. The most complex innate behavioral reflexes:

A) instincts;

В) fears and anxieties;

C) conditioned reflexes;

D) rational activity;

E) unconditioned reflexes;


266. What is a conditioned signal for a dog that has a conditioned reflex to a bell?

A) ring tone;

В) kind of food;

C) Signal light;

D) type of call;

E) the spoken word "Call!";


267. What will you observe as a result of multiple feeding combinations of an animal, followed by a call?

A) the extinction of the unconditional orienting reflex to the bell;

B) development of a conditioned salivary reflex to a bell;

C) development of a conditioned defensive reflex to a bell;

D) inhibition of the unconditioned salivary reflex;

E) stimulation of reflexes during the sound of a bell;


268. A person has developed a food reflex to the bell. Name the condition under which saliva is not released:

A) on the type of call;

В) on the word of the experimenter: "Call!";

C) on the switched off call;

D) the bell rings on the inscription;

E) on the sound of the bell;


269. A person sees, hears and understands everything, makes sounds, but cannot speak. This is the result of a violation:

A) speech center;

В) thinking;

C) vocal cords;

D) view;

E) memory;


270. Due to what is achieved low mobility of the joints?

A) the presence of elastic cartilaginous pads between the bones;

B) by accretion;

C) the presence of a cavity between the articulating bones;

D) The articulated ends of the bones are covered with hyaline cartilage;

E) uncoupled bone ends are covered with cartilage;


271. What is the difference between connective tissue and the rest?

A) extracellular substance;

B) cell inclusions;

C) a variety of cell forms;

D) large cell size;

E) cell structure;


272. Which of these examples is the result of neural regulation?

A) pulling the hand off during a burn;

B) blanching of the skin from cold;

C) sweating;

D) reddening of the skin in the heat;

E) salivation;


273. What bones are involved in the formation of the knee joint?

A) tibia and tibia;

В) clavicle and humerus;

C) bones of the head and neck;

D) tibia and pelvic bones;

E) pelvic bones;


274. What refers to the internal environment of the body?

A) blood plasma;

B) Pepper bone;

C) digestive tract;

D) salivary glands;

E) circulatory system;

275. What blood flows through the human pulmonary artery?

A) venous;

В) capillary;

C) mixed;

D) lymphatic;

E) arterial;


276. Determine the tubular bones of the belt of the lower extremities:

A) there are no such bones;

B) pelvic bones;

C) tibia;

D) phalanx;

E) Shin;
277. By dividing which cells do tubular bones grow in a dina?

A) cartilage tissue;

B) bone cells;

C) pelvic bones;

D) tendon;

E) periosteum;
278. Which of these cells are capable of phagocytosis?

A) leukocytes;

B) red blood cells;

C) follicles;

D) platelets;

E) Liver cells;

279. The pulmonary circulation is the path of blood from?

A) the right ventricle along the pulmonary artery and capillaries, the pulmonary vein to the left atrium;

B) left ventricle, through arteries, capillaries, and veins to the right ventricle;

C) left atrium, through arteries, capillaries and veins to the right ventricle;

D) pulmonary artery and capillaries, pulmonary vein to the left atrium;

E) left atrium, through arteries, capillaries and veins to the left ventricle;


280. What is the essence of gas exchange in tissues?

A) oxygen from the blood is transferred to the tissues, and the blood is saturated with carbon dioxide;

B) Carbon dioxide enters the tissues and oxygen enters the bloodstream back;

C) Oxygen enters the tissues, and carbon dioxide returns to the bloodstream;

D) Carbon dioxide from the blood enters the pulmonary vesicles, and oxygen vice versa;

E) Carbon dioxide and oxygen from the blood enters the pulmonary vesicles and vice versa;

281. Determine the composition of inhaled atmospheric air:

A) oxygen 21%; nitrogen 79%; carbon dioxide 0.03%;

B) oxygen 16%; nitrogen 79%; carbon dioxide 4%;

C) oxygen 10%; nitrogen 50%; carbon dioxide 39%;

D) the inhaled and exhaled air on structure does not differ;

E) oxygen 20%; nitrogen 80%; carbon dioxide 5%;


282. The path of air into the lungs with proper breathing:

A) nasal cavity - nasopharynx - larynx - trachea - pulmonary vesicles;

В) oral cavity - larynx - trachea - pulmonary vesicles;

C) nasal cavity - nasopharynx - larynx - trachea - bronchi - pulmonary vesicles;

D) nasal cavity - nasopharynx - larynx –trachea - pulmonary vesicles - bronchi;

E) oral cavity - nasopharynx - larynx - trachea - bronchi - pulmonary vesicles;


283. In what order are the digestive organs?

A) oral cavity - esophagus - stomach - small intestine - large intestine - rectum;

B) oral cavity - esophagus - stomach - colon - small intestine - rectum;

C) The oral cavity - the stomach - the esophagus - the small intestine - the large intestine - the rectum;

D) esophagus - stomach - small intestine - large intestine - rectum;

E) stomach - esophagus - small intestine - large intestine - rectum;


284. What does the smell and taste quality of food?

A) for the reflex regulation of juices;

В) for humoral regulation of juices;

C) for reflex and humoral secretion;

D) for humoral regulation of juices;

E) for reflex regulation of salivation;


285. The essence of digestion in the oral cavity:

A) mechanical processing of food and the initial splitting of starch;

B) secretion of hormones and regulation;

C) digestion of fats and carbohydrates;

D) completion of the digestion of all organic substances and their absorption;

E) the breakdown of fats, proteins and carbohydrates;


286. Which of these substances can be injected directly into human blood?

A) glucose solution;

B) starch and water;

C) clean water;

D) lipid solution;

E) Fats and proteins;


287. What is the essence of energy metabolism in the cell?

A) release of energy due to splitting of organic substances;

B) release of energy as a result of the digestion of organic matter;

С. there is no right answer;

D) release of energy due to the splitting of organic substances;

E) the construction of organic substances and the provision of building materials to the cell;


288. What foods contain vitamin C?

A) vegetables and fruits;

В) liver and fresh meat;

C) fish oil and egg;

D) bran bread;

E) rye bread;


289. Which of the transformations of substances is not peculiar to the body?

A) carbohydrates in proteins;

B) proteins and fats;

C) carbohydrates to fats;

D) proteins to carbohydrates;

E) proteins in fats;


290. Through which organs are the end products of protein breakdown released?

A) skin and kidneys;

B) salivary glands;

C) hormonal secretion;

D) digestive canal;

E) lungs and skin;

291. What is the name of the physiologically active substances secreted by the endocrine glands?

A) hormones;

B) vitamins;

C) medication;

D) minerals ;;

E) enzymes;

292. What stimuli are perceived and analyzed by skin receptors?

A) contact and warmth;

В) sounds and noise irritation;

C) atmospheric pressure and body position;

D) they are not capable of it;

E) color and light;

293. Specify the path of the nerve impulse along the reflex arc:

A) Receptor - sensitive neuron - intercalated neuron - motor neuron - working organ;

В) receptor - intercalary neuron - sensitive neuron - motor neuron - working organ;

C) receptor - sensitive neuron - intercalary neuron - inhibiting neuron - working organ;

D) intercalary neuron - sensitive neuron - motor neuron - working organ;

E) sensitive neuron - neuron - motor neuron - working organ;


294. What forms the central nervous system?

A) from the spinal cord, brain, and nerves extending from them;

B) from the spinal cord and brain;

C) from the nervous system and neurons;

D) from nerve nodes and nerves;

E) from the brain and nerve nodes and the nerves extending from it;


295. The activity of the internal organs is enhanced if the excitation enters through:

A) sympathetic nerve;

В) Somatic nerve;

C) parasympathetic nerve;

D) all of the above nerves;

E) peripheral nerves;


296. Where are the sound-sensitive cells?

A) in the cochlea;

В) in the auricle;

C) in the auditory area;

D) in the auditory nerve;

E) in the auditory bone;

297. In which case will an animal develop a conditioned salivary reflex to a bell?

A) as a result of repeated combination of a call followed by feeding;

В) as a result of multiple combinations of light dilutions;

C) after multiple feeding combinations followed by a call;

D) in none of these cases is not formed;

E) after a one-time combination of a call with feeding; after a one-time combination of a call with feeding;


298. Which of the following is a function of the respiratory system?

A) gas exchange

B) absorption of nutrients

C) bronchii

D) transport of oxygen

E) structural support


299. The trachea leads to the:

A) bronchioles

B)bronchii

C) esophagus

D)pulmonary vessel

E) kidney


300. The space at the back of the mouth, that leads either to the airway or the esophagus is the:

A) larynx

B) conchae

C) nasal cavity

D) pharynx

E) eyes


301. Oxygen from the air enters the blood stream at what location?

A) cardiac notch

B) pulmonary vein

C) alveoli

D) paranasal sinuses

E) nasal
302. Hyaline cartilage has primary function?

A) protect the thyroid

B) increase the surface area

C) connect the conchae

D)support the trachea

E) pharynx

303. When the diaphragm contracts (is pulled downward), _______ occurs.

A) inhalation

B) exhalation

C) a hiccup

D) the lungs deflate

E) tissue

304. AE is the

A) inferior lobe

B) upper edge of the heart

C) diaphragm

D) esophagus

E) muscule
305. What divides the left and right side of the nasal cavity?

A) septum

B) conchae

C) pharynx

D) sinus

E) alveoli

306. Hemoglobin rates in a healthy person:

A) 120 – 140 g/l

B) 60 – 90 g/l

C) 100 – 110 g/l

D) 40 – 50 g/l

E) over 160 g/l


307. Osteoblasts. Eliminate the wrong ...

A) mature, no longer dividing cells

B) well developed granular endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi complex

C) is characterized by high activity of alkaline phosphatase

D) form osteoid

E) localized mainly in the places of bone remodeling


308. Function of the metepiphyseal cartilage plate ...

A) serves to lengthen the tubular bones, this is the place of bone formation

B) ensures the growth and regeneration of the cartilage of the articular surfaces

C) this is the place of differentiation of the periosteum

D) form osteoid

E) this is the place of formation of cartilage tissue


309. What is an osteoid?

A) this is the matrix of the newly formed bone

B) it is a bone matrix that does not contain collagen fibers

C) contains hydroxyapatite associated with collagen through osteonectics

D) it is a bone matrix

E) this is the cartilaginous tissue from which bone tissue is formed


310. Indicate what of the following is absent in the auricle cartilage matrix ...

A) blood capillaries

B) collagen fibers

C) elastic fibers



D) proteoglycans

E) water

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