Тестовые вопросы по общей хирургии для студентов 3 курса ом



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ТЕСТОВЫЕ ВОПРОСЫ
по общей хирургии для студентов 3 курса ОМ





Наименование тем

Кол-во тестов

1.

История хирургии. Деонтология. Десмургия.

1-6

2.

Асептика.




3.

Антисептика.




4.

Общее и местное обезболивание.




5.

Кровотечение. Общие и местные симптомы. Методы остановки кровотечений (временные и окончательные). Определение группы крови, резус фактора. Переливание крови. Показания и противопоказания к переливанию крови. Техника переливания. Механизм действия перелитой крови. Пробы на совместимость.




6.

Раны. Классификация. Первичная хирургическая обработка (ПХО) ран.




7.

Ожоги и отморожения. Электротравма.




8.

Закрытые повреждения. Шок. Коллапс. Обморок. Травматический и anaphylactic шок: патогенез, клиника, лечение, профилактика. Терминальные состояния организма.




9.

Переломы костей. Вывихи.




10.

Хирургическая инфекция. Определение. Классификация (фурункул, фурункулез, карбункул, гидраденит, мастит, остеомиелит, парапроктит, панариции, паронихия, эризипелоид, рожа).




11.

Хроническая специфическая хирургическая инфекция.
Анаэробная инфекция. Классификация. Возбудители газовой гангрены. Клиника, лечение и профилактика газовой гангрены. Гнилостная инфекция: этиология, клиника, лечение. Столбняк. Общая гнойная инфекция (сепсис).




12.

Хирургия паразитарных заболеваний. Эхинококкоз и альвеококкоз.




13.

Расстройство кровообращения. Облитерирующий эндартериит и атеросклероз. Некрозы, гангрены (сухая и влажная), трофические язвы (варикозные, рубцовые, послеожоговые и др.).




14.

Хирургическая операция: понятие, виды хирургического вмешательства. Предоперационный период. Послеоперационный период. Особенности ухода за painными.




15.

Опухоли.




1. When was surgery created as science?
1. in the XVI century
2. in the XVII century
3. in the XVIII century
4.+ in the XIX century
5. at the beginning of XX century

2. Who the first time described classical signs of inflammation?


1. Hippocrates
2.+ Zels
3. Galen
4. Ambroise Paré
5. Harvey

3. Who introduced an experimental method of a research in medicine for the first time?


1. Ambroise Paré
2. Harvey
3. Zels
4.+ Galen
5. Hippocrates

4. Who offered an antiseptic method of treatment of wounds for the first time?


1. L. Pasteur
2.+ J. Lister
3. E. Bergman
4. I. Zemmelveys
5. N.I. Pirogov

5. Who for the first time created the special operation room?


1. N.I. Pirogov
2.+M.S. Subbotin
3. L. Landshteyner
4. K. Bernard
5. U.T. Morton

6. Who for the first time made painless removal of a tumor of submaxillary area, having applied for this purpose steam inhalation of ether?


1. Simpson
2. Pirogov
3. Subbotin
4.+ Morton
5. Lister

7. Who introduced a chloroformic anesthesia in medical practice for the first time?


1.+J. Simpson
2. N.I. Pirogov
3. M.S. Subbotin
4. U.T. Morton
5. L. Landshteyner

8. Who is a founder of surgical anatomy and field surgery?


1.+N.I. Pirogov
2. Sklifosofsky
3. Dyakonov`
4. Vishnevsky
5. Burdenko

9. What from listed are way of exogenous infection of a wound?


а.+ contact
б. endogenous
в.+ airborne
г.+ implantation
д. sorption

Choose a combination of the correct answers:


1. а, б, в
2. б, в, г
3. а, г, д
4.+а, в, г
5. б, д

10. Ways of infection of a wound at an endogenous infection?


а. drop
б.+ limfogenny
в. air
г. implantation
д.+ hematogenic

Choose a combination of the correct answers:


1. а, в
2. б, г
3. а, г, д
4. а, в, г
5+б, д

11. What cleaning is holding in the operating room in an interval between operations?


1. preliminary
2. current
3.+ postoperative
4. final
5. general

12. What types of cleaning are provided daily in surgical departmen?


а. intermediate
б.+ preliminary
в.+ current
г.+ final
д. general

Choose a combination of the correct answers:


1. а, б, в
2.+б, в, г
3. а, б, г, д
4. б, в, г, д
5. а, в, г

13. What is the mode in the oven when sterilizing instruments?


1. 20 min. at 1800 С
2. 30 min. at 1500С
3.+60 min. at 1800С
4. 2 h. at 1000С
5. 1 h. 30 min. at 1200С

14. What is the duration of sterilization of surgical instruments in an autoclave under a pressure of 2 atm.?


1.+20 min.
2. 30 min.
3. 45 min.
4. 60 min.
5. 1 h. 30 min.

15. What mode is observed in the autoclave when sterilizing medical products from rubber materials (gloves, drainage tubes, etc.)?


1. 10 min. at 1 atm.
2. 20 min. at 1 atm.
3. 30 min. at 1 atm.
4. 30 min. at 1,1 atm.
5.+45 min. at 1,1 atm.

16. Permissible storage life of sterile material in bix?


1. 12 h.
2. 24 h.
3. 36 h.
4.+48 h.
5. 72 h.

17. The permissible storage life of the sterilized material and linen, in linen bags?


1. 12 h.
2.+24 h.
3. 36 h.
4. 48 h.
5. 72 h.

18. How do sterilized instruments that have been in contact with an anaerobic infection?


1. autoclaving for 30 minutes
2. steam of formalin
3. ultraviolet rays
4.+ boiling
5. immersion in ammonia

19. What is used for accelerated disinfection of the surgeon's hands before surgery?


1. ammonia
2. ethyl alcohol
3. Novosept
4.+ Cerigel
5. chloramine

20. What methods are used to disinfection the surgeon's hands before surgery?


а.+ Spasokukotsky-Kochergin’s method
б.+ handle with pervomur
в. Grossikh-Filonchikov’s method
г. Bakkal’s method
д. Gubarev’s method

Choose a combination of the correct answers:


1. а, д
2. б, г
3.+а, б
4. в, г
5. в, д

21. Which method is most often used to disinfection the surgical field?


1. Gubarev’s method
2. Sitkovsky
3. Spasokukotsky-Kochergin’s method
4.+ Grossikh-Filonchikov’s method
5. Kocher’s

22. What does envisage the method of processing the operational field by Grossichu-Filonchikov’s method?


1. 3-fold treatment with pervomur
2. rubbing with 96% alcohol for 5 minutes
3. 2-fold treatment with 0.5% p-rum of ammonia
4. 2-fold treatment with p-rum of chlorhexidine
5.+ 4-fold treatment with 5% alcoholic solution of iodine

23. What drugs form the basis of the C-4 solution for treating the surgeon's hands?


1. hydrogen peroxide + ethyl alcohol
2.+hydrogen peroxide + formic acid
3. hydrogen peroxide + ammonia
4. hydrogen peroxide + mercuric chloride
5. hydrogen peroxide + methyl alcohol

24. Which antiseptic preparations are oxidizers?


а. chlorhexidine
б. furatsillin
в.+hydrogen peroxide
г. dioxidine
д.+ potassium permanganate

Choose a combination of the correct answers:


1. а, г
2.+в, д
3. а, б
4. б, в
5. а, д

25. What concentration of novocaine is most often used for infiltration anesthesia by Vishnevsky?


1.+0,25%
2. 0,5%
3. 1%
4. 2%
5. 5%

26. What test is used to control the complete removal of blood from objects that have presterilizational preparation?


1. antipyrine
2. benzoic
3.+ benzidine
4. rezorbtsin
5. ascorbic

27. At what pathology is used case Novocain blockade?


1. rib fractures
2. inflammatory diseases of soft tissues
3.+ limb injuries
4. blunt abdominal trauma
5. brain contusions

28. Which of the following drugs are used for local anesthesia?


а.+ Novocain
б.+ lidocaine
в. aminophylline
г. adrenalin

д. penicillin


Choose a combination of the correct answers:
1.+а, б
2. в, д
3. а, г
4. б, в
5. в, г

29. What anesthesia is most appropriate for operations on the upper limb?


1. by Vishnevsky
2.+ by Kulenkampfu
3. by Brown
4. by Volkovich-Dyakonov
5. by Oberst-Lukashevich
30. What anesthesia is most appropriate for finger surgery?
1. By Vishnevsky
2. by Kulenkampfu
3. by Brown
4. by Volkovich-Dyakonov
5.+ by Oberst-Lukashevich

31. What is the purpose of premedication?


а.+ emotional stress relief
б.+ suppression of salivation
в. lower blood pressure
г. suppression of the functions of the vagus nerve
д. decrease in myocardial oxygen consumption
Choose a combination of the correct answers:
1.+а, б
2. в, д
3. а, г
4. б, в
5. в, г

32. At what stage of anesthesia is it possible to perform short-term surgical interventions (opening of abscesses, phlegmon)?


1. surgical stage
2.+ analgesia
3. excitation
4. adaptation
5. awakening
33. At what stage of anesthesia does the inhibition of the cerebral cortex occur?
1. surgical stage
2. analgesia
3.+ excitation
4. adaptation
5. awakening

34. Which of the following is the most common complication of anesthesia?


1. hemoconcentration
2. hemodilution
3. hypovolemia
4.+ regurgitation
5. hypersalivation
35. What clinical signs characterize preagonal condition?
а. lack of consciousness
б.+ inhibition
в. lack of pulsation in the carotid artery
г.+ severe shortness of breath
д.+ cyanotic skin
Choose a combination of the correct answers:
1. а, б
2. в, д
3.+б, г, д
4. а, б, г
5. в, г

36. What clinical signs are most often observed in the agonal state?


а.+ lack of consciousness
б. inhibition
в.+ blood pressure is not determined
г. severe shortness of breath
д.+ shallow and rapid breathing

Choose a combination of the correct answers:


1. б, г
2. в, д
3. б, г, д
4.+а, в, д
5. а, в, г

37. What are the most objective signs of clinical death?


а.+lack of pulsation in the carotid artery


б. pupil constriction
в.+ pupil dilation
г.+ respiratory arrest
д. inhibition

Choose a combination of the correct answers:


1. б, г
2. в, д
3. б, г, д
4. а, в, д
5.+а, в, г

38. What kind of shock develops at allergic reactions due to drugs?


1. hypovolemic
2. hemorrhagic
3. cardiogenic
4.+ anaphylactic
5. septic

39.
What kind of shock develops at an acute disturbance of water and electrolyte balance in the body?


1.+hypovolemic
2. hemorrhagic
3. cardiogenic
4. anaphylactic
5. septic

40. What kind of shock develops during a bleeding?


1. hypovolemic
2.+hemorrhagic
3. hematogenous
4. anaphylactic
5. septic

41. What drugs are used for anaphylactic shock?


а. anticoagulants
б.+ antihistamines
в. narcotic drugs
г. protease inhibitors
д.+ corticosteroids

Choose a combination of the correct answers:


1. б, г
2. в, д
3.+б, д
4. а, в, д
5. а, б, г

42. What kind of bleeding in connection with the external environment and clinical manifestations can be?


а. arterial


б. venous
в.+external
г.+internal
д.+hidden
Choose a combination of the correct answers:
1. а, б, в, г
2.+в, г, д
3. а, б, д
4. а, в, д
5. а, б

43. Which of the following refers to internal bleeding?


1. hemodilution
2. hemophilia
3. hematuria
4.+ hemoperitoneum
5. hemoconcentration

44. What is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity?


1. hemoperitoneum
2. emopericardium
3.+ hemothorax
4. hemarthrosis
5. hematoma

45. What research method can be used to detect hidden gastrointestinal bleeding?


1. blood analysis
2. urine analysis
3.+ stool analysis
4. ultrasound examination
5. irrigoscopy

46. What drugs are hemodynamic agents?


а. Ringer's solution
б.+ reopolyglukin
в.+ polyglukin
г. glucose solution
д. 0.9% isotonic solution of sodium chloride

Choose a combination of the correct answers:


1. а, б, в, г
2.+в, г, д
3. а, б, д
4. а, в, д
5. а, б

47. What is the mechanism of action of hemodynamic drugs?


а.+ restoration of blood pressure
б. improving the rheological properties of blood
в. replenishing the nutritional functions of the blood
г.+ increase a circulating blood volume
д. enhanced renal filtration

Choose a combination of the correct answers:


1. б, в
2. в, д
3. а, б, д
4.+а, г
5. б, в, г

48. Which of the following is autohemotransfusion?


1. partial or complete removing of blood from the recipient’s bloodstream and simultaneous replacement with the same amount of blood
2. direct transfusion from donor to recipient
3.+ transfusion of the patient's own blood
4. transfusion of blood substitutes
5. transfusion of canned donor blood
49. Which of the following is exchange transfusion?
1. +partial or complete removing of blood from the recipient’s bloodstream and simultaneous replacement with the same amount of blood
2. direct transfusion from donor to recipient
3. transfusion of the patient's own blood
4. transfusion of blood substitutes
5. transfusion of canned donor blood

50. Which of the following is a reinfusion?


1. partial or complete removing of blood from the recipient’s bloodstream and simultaneous replacement with the same amount of blood
2. direct transfusion from donor to recipient
3.+ reverse transfusion of the patient's own blood, poured into the serous cavities
4. transfusion of blood substitutes
5. transfusion of canned donor blood

51. What chemical is used to prevent blood from clotting while canning it?


1. aminocaproic acid
2. vikasol
3.+ sodium citrate
4. physical sodium chloride solution
5. acetylsalicylic acid

52. Between what components of blood make a test for individual compatibility?


1. blood serum of the donor and the blood of the patient
2.+ blood serum of the patient and the blood of donor
3. formed elements of the blood of the patient and the blood of the patient
4. formed elements of the blood of the donor and the blood of the donor
5. whole blood of a donor and whole blood of a patient

53.
What blood elements contain α and β agglutinins?


1. in red blood cells
2. in platelets
3. in leukocytes
4.+ in serum
5. in monocytes

54. What elements of blood contain agglutinogens A and B?


1. + in red blood cells
2. in platelets
3. in leukocytes
4. in serum
5. in monocytes

55. To which blood group does the test blood belong, if there are no agglutinogens in the erythrocytes and there are α and β agglutinins in the serum?


1.+0(I)
2. A(II)
3. B(III)
4. AB(IV)
5. normally there is no such combination.

56. To which blood group does the test blood belong if agglutinogen A is contained in erythrocytes and agglutinin β in serum?


1. 0(I)
2.+A(II)
3. B(III)
4. AB(IV)
5. normally there is no such combination.

57. To which blood group does the test blood belong if agglutinogen B is contained in erythrocytes and agglutinin α in serum?


1. 0(I)
2. A(II)
3.+B(III)
4. AB(IV)
5. normally there is no such combination.

58. To which blood group does the test blood belong, if the erythrocytes contain agglutinogens A and B, and there is no agglutinin serum?


1. 0(I)
2. A(II)
3. B(III)
4.+AB(IV)
5. normally there is no such combination.

59. At which pathological conditions can blood be collected for subsequent reinfusion?


а. blunt abdominal trauma with rupture of the small intestine
б.+ rupture of the spleen
в.+ aortic aneurysm rupture
г. abdominal trauma with rupture of the colon
д. rupture of the gallbladder

Choose a combination of the correct answers:


1.+б, в
2. в, д
3. а, б, д
4. а, г
5. а, б, г

60.
What complication most often develops against during of blood transfusion?


1. hemorrhagic shock
2. hemodilution
3.+ blood transfusion shock
4. hemoconcentration
5. achalasia of the cardia

61. What are the most common clinical signs of bleeding?


а. heart pain
б.+ dizziness
в. cyanotic skin of the lower extremities
г.+ progressive general weakness
д.+ pale skin

Choose a combination of the correct answers:


1.б, в
2. в, д
3. б, в, г
4. а, б
5.+б, г, д

62.
What instrumental method of investigation provides an opportunity to visually inspect the pleural cavity?


1. diaphanoscopy
2.+thoracoscopy
3. laparoscopy
4. colonoscopy
5. irrigoscopy

63. What instrumental research method gives the opportunity to visually inspect the abdominal cavity?


1. diaphanoscopy
2. thoracoscopy
3.+laparoscopy
4. colonoscopy
5. irrigoscopy

64. What instrumental research method provides an opportunity to clarify the disease of the colon?


1. diaphanoscopy
2. thoracoscopy
3. laparocentesis
4.+ colonoscopy
5. irrigoscopy

65Which of the following refers to the X-ray method to research


the colon?

1. colonoscopy


2.+ irrigoscopy
3. fibrogastroduodenoscopy
4. laparoscopy
5. laparocentesis

66. For which diseases do an emergency operation?


1. acute swollen pancreatitis
2. umbilical hernia
3. adhesive disease of the abdominal cavity
4.+ acute appendicitis
5. stomach cancer

67. For which diseases do a planned operation?


1. nodulation in the small intestine
2. perforated duodenal ulcer
3.+ inguinal hernia
4. peritonitis
5. acute destructive cholecystitis

68. Which of the following is called a simultaneous operation?


1. when all stages of one operation are performed one by one, without a gap in time
2. when one operation consists of several stages and each stage is performed at different times
3. operation using endoscopic devices
4.+ performance of two or more operations in one patient at the same time
5. operations performed with radiological control

69. What is the name of the operation performed to eliminate the immediate danger to the life of the patient or to alleviate his condition?


1. simultaneous
2. one-stage
3. multi-stage
4.+ palliative
5. radical
70.
What is the name of the operation, in which, by removing the pathological formation, the return of the disease is excluded?
1. simultaneous
2. one-stage
3. multi-stage
4. palliative
5. +radical

71. Postoperative period is?


1. the period from the moment of completion of the operation to the subjective improvement of the patient's condition
2. the period from the moment of completion of the operation to the healing of postoperative wounds
3. time from the moment the operation is completed until the patient is awakened after anesthesia
4.+ time from the moment the operation is completed until the patient recovers
5. the period from the moment of transfer of the patient after the operation from the intensive care unit to the surgical department

72. Early postoperative period is?


1. the time interval from the moment of transfer of the patient after the operation from the operating room to the intensive care room
2. the period from the moment of completion of the operation to the healing of postoperative wounds
3. time from the moment the operation is completed until the patient is awakened after anesthesia

4.+ time from the moment the operation is completed to the patient's discharge from the hospita


5. the period from the moment of transfer of the patient after the operation from the intensive care unit to the surgical department

73. The late postoperative period is?


1. the time interval from the moment of transfer of the patient after the operation from the operating room to the intensive care room
2. the period from the moment of completion of the operation to the healing of postoperative wounds
3.+ time from the moment of discharge of the patient from the hospital to recovery
4. time from the moment of completion of the operation to discharge the patient from the hospital
5. the period from the moment of transfer of the patient after the operation from the intensive care unit to the surgical departmen
74. What kind of bandage is used to the chest with open pneumothorax?
1. hemostatic
2. immobilizing
3.+ occlusal
4. creeping
5. circular

75. What kind of bandage is used for clavicle fractures?


1. Cramer
2. Diterichs
3.+Deso
4. Elanskies
5. Shantz

76. What tire is used for femur fractures?


1. Cramer
2.+Diterichs
3. Deso
4. Elanskies
5. Shantz

77. What tire is universal ?


1.+Cramer
2. Diterichs
3. Deso
4. Elanskies
5. Shantz

78. What tire is used for head and cervical spine injuries?


1. Cramer
2. Diterichs
3. Deso
4.+Elanskies
5. Shantz

77. What is the name of the suture, which is applied within 15 days from the moment of injury?


1. primary suture
2. primary delayed suture
3.+early secondary suture
4. late secondary seam
5. provisional suture

78. What is the name of the suture, which is applied no later than 5-7 days after the initial surgical treatment of the wound?


1. primary suture
2.+primary delayed suture
3. early secondary suture
4. late secondary seam
5. provisional suture

79. What is the suture called, when after the operation sutures are put on the edges of the wound, and they are tightened after several days, if the wound does not fester?


1. primary suture
2. primary delayed suture
3. early secondary suture
4. late secondary seam
5.+provisional suture

80. What symptoms are likely clinical signs of bone fractures?


а.+ pain
б.+swelling
в. pathological mobility
г.+dysfunction
д. crepitus of bone fragments

Choose a combination of the correct answers:


1. а, в
2. б, д
3. б, в, д
4.+а, б, г
5. в, д

81. What symptoms are reliable clinical signs of bone fractures?


а. pain
б. swelling
в.+pathological mobility
г. dysfunction
д.+crepitus of bone fragments

Choose a combination of the correct answers:


1. а, в
2. б, д
3. б, в, д
4. а, б, г
5.+в, д

82. At which stage of burn affect only the epidermis?


1.+I stage.
2. II stage.
3. IIIА stage.
4. IIIB stage.
5. IV stage.

83. At which stage of burn affect all dermis?


1. I stage.
2. II stage.
3. II А stage.
4.+III stage.
5. IV stage.

84. At which stage of burns does necrosis of the epithelium and partially of the germinal zone occur with the preservation of hair follicles, sebaceous and sweat glands occur?


1. I stage.
2. II stage.
3.+IIIА stage.
4. IIIB stage.
5. IV stage.

85. At which stage of burns does necrosis of the entire thickness of the dermis and partially subcutaneous tissue occur?


1. I stage.
2. II stage.
3. IIIА stage.
4.+IIIB stage.
5. IV stage.

86. At which stage of burns necrosis of all skin and deep tissue occurs?


1. I stage.
2. II stage.
3. IIIА stage.
4. IIIB stage.
5.+IV stage.

87. What local characteristic characterizes the impact on soft tissue concentrated alkali?


1. appearance of the bull
2.+ colliquation necrosis
3. coagulative necrosis
4. cyanosis and pale skin
5. blistering
88. What local characteristic characterizes the impact on soft tissue concentrated acid?
1. appearance of the bull
2. colliquation necrosis
3. +coagulative necrosis
4. cyanosis and pale skin
5. blistering

89. Fall of body temperature below what level leads to serious pathological condition of an organism, called freezing?


1. 25^C
2. 28^C
3. 30^C
4. 32^C
5.+34^C

90. Fall of body temperature below what level leads to death?


1. 34–32^C
2. 32–31^C
3. 31–29^C.
4. 28–26^C
5.+25–22^C

91. Which of the following is called erysipelas?


1. purulent inflammation of sweat glands
2. purulent inflammation of finger tissue
3.+ acute serous inflammation of the only skin
4. acute purulent inflammation of the hair follicle
5. inflammation of the synovial bags

92. What is furuncle?


1. purulent inflammation of sweat glands
2. purulent inflammation of finger tissue
3. acute serous inflammation of the only skin
4.+ acute purulent inflammation of the hair follicle
5. inflammation of the synovial bags

93. What is furunculosis?


1. purulent inflammation of sweat glands
2.+ multiple purulent inflammation of the hair follicle
3. acute serous inflammation of the only skin
4. acute purulent inflammation of the hair follicle
5. inflammation of the synovial bags

94. What is a carbuncle?


1. purulent inflammation of sweat glands
2. acute purulent inflammation of the tissue near the rectum
3. acute serous inflammation of the only skin
4. acute purulent inflammation of the hair follicle
5.+ acute purulent-necrotic inflammation of several hair sacs and sebaceous glands

95. What is hydradenitis?


1.+purulent inflammation of sweat glands
2. acute purulent inflammation of the tissue near the rectum
3. acute serous inflammation of the only skin
4. acute purulent inflammation of the hair follicle
5. acute purulent-necrotic inflammation of several hair sacs and sebaceous glands

96. What is phlebitis?


1. slowing blood flow through the veins
2. damage of the vein wall
3. intravascular formation of thrombus without inflammatory changes in the vein wall
4. vein inflammation with simultaneous thrombosis
5.+ inflammation of the wall of the veins without thrombosis

97. What is thrombophlebitis?


1. slowing blood flow through the veins
2. damage of the vein wall
3. intravascular formation of thrombus without inflammatory changes in the vein wall
4.+ vein inflammation with simultaneous thrombosis
5. inflammation of the wall of the veins without thrombosis

98. What is paraproctitis?


1. purulent inflammation of sweat glands
2.+acute purulent inflammation of the tissue near the rectum
3. acute serous inflammation of the only skin
4. acute purulent inflammation of the hair follicle
5. acute purulent-necrotic inflammation of several hair sacs and sebaceous glands
99. What is panaritium?
1. purulent inflammation of sweat glands
2. acute purulent inflammation of the tissue near the rectum
3.+ purulent inflammation of the finger tissue
4. acute purulent inflammation of the hair follicle
5. acute serous inflammation of the only skin

100. What pathology is the most common cause of lower extremity gangrene?


1.+ arterial thrombosis
2. osteomyelitis of the femur
3. strangulated inguinal hernia
4. varicose veins of the limbs
5. thrombophlebitis of the superficial veins of the limb

101. Which of the following is the most common cause of trophic ulcers on the lower limb?


1.+ varicose veins of the lower limbs
2. strangulated inguinal hernia
3. femoral hernia
4. arterial hypertension
5. mesenteric vessels thrombosis

102. What chemical causes coagulation necrosis of the esophagus wall?


1. potassium permanganate
2. perhydrol
3.+ acetic acid
4. ammonia
5. caustic soda

103. What chemical substance causes colliquation necrosis of the esophagus wall?


1. potassium permanganate
2. perhydrol
3.+ acetic acid
4. ammonia
5. caustic soda
5. ethyl alcohol
104. What disease is characterized by spasm of the chewing muscles?
1. erysipelatous inflammation
2. gas gangrene
3.+ tetanus
4. osteochondrosis
5. mastitis

105. What disease is characterized by a sardonic smile?


1. osteomyelitis of the lower jaw
2. gas gangrene

3. carbuncle neck


4.+ tetanus
5. hydradenitis

106. What disease is a specific wound infection?


1. erysipelatous inflammation
2.+ gas gangrene
3. lactational mastitis
4. tendovaginitis
5. hematogenous osteomyelitis

107. What research is the main instrumental method for diagnosing gas gangrene?


1. angiography
2. irrigoscopy
3.+ roentgenography
4. biopsy
5. pneumogastrography

108. What disease is a parasitic surgical disease?


1.+ echinococcosis
2. erysipelas
3. tetanus
4. gas gangrene
5. pneumocaniasis

109. Which of the following is a method of biological antiseptics?


1) Primary surgical treatment of wounds
2) Washing the wound cavity with hydrogen peroxide solution
3)+ Intramuscular penicillin injection
4) prescription of sulfadimethoxine
5) prescription ultrasond frequency therapy

110. What is the concentration of furatsillin solution used for washing wounds?


1) 1:200
2) 1:500
3) 1:2000
4)+1:5000
5) 1:10 000

111. The shock index of Algover is a ratio:


1) systolic to diastolic pressure
2) diastolic to systolic pressure
3) pulse rate to respiratory rate
4) respiratory rate to pulse rate
5)+ pulse rate to systolic pressure
112. Norm Algover shock index is:
1)+0,5;
2) 1,0;
3) 1,5;
4) 2,0;
5) 2,5.

113. What tire should be used for transport immobilization at a femur fracture?


1)+Diterich’s


2) Kuzminsky’s
3) mesh
4) Beler’s
5) Ilizarov’s apparatus

114.
The area of ​​the burn of the right shoulder and the front surface of the right femur according to the "rule of nines" is:


1) 1 %
2)+9%
3) 18%
4) 27%
5) 36%

115. The area of ​​the burn of the right shin and the front surface of the abdomen according to the "rule of nines" is:


1) 9%
2)+16%
3) 18%
4) 27%
5) 36%

116. The area of ​​the burn of the left forearm and the back surface of the left femur according to the "rule of nines" is:


1)+7%
2) 9%
3) 18%
4) 27%
5) 36%

117. The area of ​​the burn of the left shin and hairy part of the head according to and


is:
1) 9%
2)+12%
3) 18%
4) 27%
5) 36%

118. The area of ​​burns of the loins and right foot according to and


are made:
1) 1 %
2)+9%
3) 18%
4) 27%
5) 36%

119. Special cleaning solution consist of:


1. water 900 ml + washing powder 80.0 + acetic acid 70% -20.0
2. water 950 ml + baking soda 40.0 + ammonia 0.5% -10.0
3. soap solution of water 980 ml + ethyl alcohol 70% -20.0
4.+ water 975 ml + washing powder 5.0 + perhydrol 20.0
5. distilled water 920 ml + solution of chloramine 5% -80.0

120. Special cleaning solution consist of:


1. water 900 ml + washing powder 80.0 + acetic acid 70% -20.0
2. water 950 ml + baking soda 40.0 + ammonia 0.5% -10.0
3.+ water 795 ml + solution of hydrogen peroxide 2.5-200 ml + washing powder 5.0
4. water 975 ml + washing powder 5.0 + perhydrol 20.0
5. distilled water 920 ml + solution of chloramine 5% -80.0

121. What test is used to control the complete removal of blood from objects that have presterilization?


1. antipyrine
2. benzoic
3.+ benzidine
4. rezorbtsin
5. ascorbic

122. Which of the following is a direct way to control the sterility of the material?


1. melting of benzoic acid
2. melting of antipyrine
3.+ bacteriological control
4. thermometry
5. Mikulich’s method

123. Chemical antiseptics belong to the group of stains:


а. furatsillina solution


б. potassium permanganate solution
в.+ methylene blue solution
г. silver nitrate solution
д.+ brilliant green solution

Choose a combination of the correct answers:


1) а, в
2) б, г
3)+в, д
4) а, б
5) в, г, д

124. Chemical antiseptic, belonging to the group of haloid:


1. potassium permanganate
2. hydrogen peroxide
3.+ chloramine
4. furatsillin
5. mercuric chloride

125. What drugs are most often used for premedication?


а. kefzol
б. analginum
в.+ relanium
г.+ atropine
д. tserukal

Choose a combination of the correct answers:


1) а, в
2) б, г
3) в, д
4) а, б
5)+в, г

126. Initial stage of anesthesia?


1. surgical stage


2. adaptation
3. excitation
4.+analgesia
5. awakening
127. Accumulation of blood in the joint cavity?
1. hemoperitoneum
2. hemopericardium
3. hemothorax
4.+hemarthrosis
5. hematoma

128. Accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity?


1. hemoperitoneum
2. hemopericardium
3.+hemothorax
4. hemarthrosis
5. hematoma

129. Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity?


1.+hemoperitoneum
2. hemopericardium
3. hemothorax
4. hemarthrosis
5. hematoma

130. Accumulation of blood in soft tissues?


1. hemoperitoneum
2. hemopericardium
3. hemothorax
4. hemarthrosis
5.+hematoma

131. Diffuse blood soaking of any soft tissue?


1. hematoma
2.+hemorrhage
3. hemoperitoneum
4. hemothorax
5. hemarthrosis

132. Accumulation of blood, limited from all sides by the tissues?


1.+hematoma
2. hemorrhage
3. hemoperitoneum
4. hemothorax
5. hemarthrosis

133. (46) What drugs are hemodynamic agents?


а. Ringer's solution


б.+ reopolyglukin
в.+ polyglukin
г. glucose solution
д. 0.9% isotonic solution of sodium chloride

Choose a combination of the correct answers:


1) а, г
2)+б, в
3) в, д
4) а, б
5) г, д

134. The mechanism of action of hemodynamic drugs:


а.+ blood pressure recovery
б. improving the rheological properties of blood
в. replenishing the nutritional functions of the blood
г.+ increase in circulating blood volume
д. enhanced renal filtration

Choose a combination of the correct answers:


1) б, д
2)+а, г
3) в, д
4) а, б, в
5) в, г, д

135. Which of the following drugs are blood substitutes liquids detoxification action?


а. casein hydrolyzate
б.+ hemodez
в.+ polidez
г. albumin
д. polyglukin

Choose a combination of the correct answers:


1) а, в
2)+б, в
3) в, д
4) а, б
5) а, г, д

136. What is the mechanism of action of detoxification blood substitutes?


а. replenishing the nutritional functions of the blood
б. improving the rheological properties of blood
в.+ adsorption
г. increase in circulating blood volume
д.+ enhanced renal filtration

Choose a combination of the correct answers:


1) а, в
2) б, г
3)+в, д
4) а, б, в
5) г, д

137. What is the optimal period of storage of canned blood at 4-6 ^ C?


1. 1 day
2. 72 h.


3. 12 days
4.+21 day
5. 30 days

138. What is the optimal period of storage of the erythrocyte mass at a temperature of 4-6 ^ C?


1. 1 days
2. 72 h.
3. 12 days
4.+21 day
5. 30 days

139. What optimum period of storage of freshly frozen plasma at a temperature 4-6^С?


1. 1 month
2. 3 months
3. 6 months
4. 8 months
5.+1 year

140. What scientist belongs idea of ​​using cadaveric blood for transfusion to a patient?


1. K. Landsteiner


2. Ya. Jansky
3. N.I. Pirogovу
4.+ V.N. Shamov
5. U.T. Morton

141. When were discovered the human blood groups?


1. in 1895 year.
2.+ in 1901 year.
3. in 1905 year.
4. in 1908 year.
5. in 1910 year.

142. When was discovered the fourth blood type of a human?


1. in 1895 year.
2. in 1901 year.
3. in 1905 year.
4.+ in 1907 year.
5. in 1910 year.

143. Who was the first to discover three blood types?


1. N.I. Pirogov
2. V.N. Shamov
3. U.T. Mortonом
4. K, Bernar
5.+ K. Landsteiner

143. Who first discovered the fourth blood type?


1. N.I. Pirogov
2. K. Landsteiner
3. U.T. Morton
4.+ Ya. Jansky
5. V.N. Shamov

144. How fast is rational to enter disintoxication solutions?


1. 20 drops/min
2. 30 drops/min
3.+40-50 drops/min
4. 70-80 drops/min
5. 90-100 drops/min

145. By urgency operations are divided into:


1. palliative
2.+ emergency
3.+ urgent
4.+ planned
5. radical
146. Iif for patient did operation resection of the stomach and cholecystectomy at the same time, that operation calld?
1.+simultaneous
2. one-stage
3. multi-stage
4. palliative
5. radical
147. What is the name of the operation when all stages of one operation are performed one after another, without a gap in time?
1. simultaneous
2.+one-stage
3. multi-stage
4. palliative
5. radical

148. What is the name of the operation, if one operation consists of several stages and each stage is performed at different times?


1. simultaneous
2. one-stage
3.+ multi-stage
4. palliative
5. radical
149. In the operational block, several operations are planned for tomorrow. Which of the following operations should be planned first?
1. resection of the small intestine
2. resection of the large intestine
3. resection of the stomach
4.+ herniotomy 
5. cholecystectomy
150. What else is called traumatic toxicosis?
1. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
2.+ crash syndrome
3. Lerish syndrome
4. Takayashi symptom
5. Grekov syndrome

151. When does develop clinic of traumatic toxicosis?


1. immediately after limb compression
2.+ after release of limb from compression
3. 10-12 hours after releas limb from compression
4. within 24-48 hours after releaslimb from compression
5. 2-4 days after releas limb from compression
152. Which of the following is the most common complication of a closed chest injury?
1. pulmonary tuberculosis
2.+hemothorax
3. bronchial asthma
4. pneumoconiosis of the lung
5. lung hemosiderosis

153. What is pneumothorax?


1. accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity
2. the presence of air in the abdominal cavity
3.+ presence of air in the pleural cavity
4. accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity
5. presence of pus in pleural half

154. What is the name of the universal stair tire?


1.+Cramer tire
2 Diterichs’s
3. Deso’s bandage
4. Elanskies’s tire
5. Shantz’s tire

155. What tire is used for head and cervical spine injuries?


1. Cramer’s
2. Diterich's
3. Deso’s
4.+Elanskies
5. Shantz’s

156. Which method most precisely determine the burn area of ​​the body?


1. rule

2. rule of


3. rule
4. Vilyavin's method
5.+ Postnikov's method

157. Above what voltage develops electroburn?


1. 5 V
2. 10 V
3. 16 V
4. 20 V
5.+24 V

1. The patient is 45 years old, taken from the scene of a traffic accident. At admission complains of pain in the right thigh. When viewed, the area of the middle third of the right femur is edematous, with palpation, there is a sharp pain, crepitation and pathological mobility.


What pathology is MOST likely?
(a) right thigh muscle rupture
b)+fracture of the right femur
C) injury of soft tissues of the right thigh
d) hematoma of soft tissues of the right thigh
d) post-traumatic myositis of the right thigh muscles
2. A 15-year-old boy was taken to the emergency room with complaints of sudden sharp pain in the bone of the right Shin, an increase in body temperature. The
pain of a bursting character, the slightest movement of the affected limb increases the pain. According to the patient, 3 days ago playing football injured his right Shin. When viewed from the right lower limb in a semi-bent position, when beating over the right tibia and in the area of the heel bone, pain is noted along the axis of the limb.
What disease is the MOST likely?
a)+acute hematogenous osteomyelitis
b) injury of soft tissues of the right Shin
C) hematoma of soft tissues of the right Shin
d) fracture of the right tibia
d) post-traumatic myositis of the muscles of the right leg
3. A 15-year-old teenager was hospitalized in the surgical Department with acute hematogenous osteomyelitis of the right tibia.
What is the most effective antibacterial agent for bone pathology?
(a) Cefazolin
b) gentamicin
C) penicillin
d) tetracycline
d)+lincomycin
4. The patient was injured in the gym while playing volleyball. After examination of the patient, the diagnosis was made: a Closed fracture of the right clavicle.
Which bandage is the MOST reasonable for transportation of the patient to the hospital?
a)+Dezo
b) Hippocrates
C) occlusive
d) spiral
d) cross
5. The patient suffered a head injury at home while working. On examination revealed a bruised wound of the hairy part of the head, triangular in shape, with dimensions 5,0x3,5x2,0 cm, the edges of the wound jagged. Wound toilet is produced.

Overlay what bandage is the MOST reasonable?


(a) Dezo
b) Velpo

C)+Hippocrates


d) spiral
d) cross

6. The patient was examined at the scene of a traffic accident. The patient is suspected of cervical spine fracture.


Which splint is the MOST reasonable for transportation of the patient to the hospital?
(a) Dezo
b) Kramer
(C) Dieterichs
d)+Elansky
e) Hippocrates
7. The patient was examined at the scene of a traffic accident. The patient is suspected of fracturing the left femur.
Which splint is the MOST reasonable for transportation of the patient to the hospital?
(a) Dezo
b) Trench
C) Elansky
d)+Dieterichs
e) Hippocrates

8. The patient was examined at the scene of a traffic accident. The patient is suspected of fracture VII-VIII ribs, right.


Which bandage is the MOST reasonable for transportation of the patient to the hospital?
(a) Dezo
b) Velpo
C) occlusive
d)+spiral
е) cross
9. The patient was taken to purulent surgery with a carbuncle of the occipital region of the scalp. Under local anesthesia, the ulcer was opened and drained.

Overlay what bandage is the MOST appropriate?


(a) Dezo

b) Velpo
C) occlusive
d) spiral
l)+Phillips

10. The patient was stabbed during a fight. The examination revealed a penetrating wound of the right half of the chest, complicated by an open pneumothorax.


Imposition of bandage which is MOST feasible?

(a) Dezo
b) Velpo


C) cross
d) occlusive
e)+spiral

12. The patient was involved in a traffic accident. Complains of intense pain in the right half of the chest, increasing with the act of breathing and movements. After examination, the patient was diagnosed with a closed fracture of the VIII-IX ribs, on the right.


Choose an analgesic for pain relief.
(a) Ketamine
b) Novocaine
C)+Baralgin
d) Dimedrol
(e) Gentamicin.
13. The patient went to the emergency room with subcutaneous panaritium III finger of the right hand.
What anesthesia is the MOST appropriate for opening the ulcer?
(a) by Brown
b) by Kulenkampf
C) by Vishnevskiy
d) according to Volkovich-Diakonov
d)+by Oberst-Lukashevich

14. The patient was taken from the site of the collapse of the house. The examination revealed an extensive crushed wound of the left knee joint and left Shin. Amputation of the left lower limb at the level of the lower third of the left thigh is assumed.


What anesthesia is the MOST appropriate for opening the ulcer?


a) by Vishnevskiy
b) by Kulenkampf
C) intravenous anesthesia
d)+peridural anesthesia
e) case novocaine blockade
15. The patient was beaten by unknown persons. After examination, the patient is assumed hemoperitoneum.
What is the most appropriate instrumental study to clarify the diagnosis?
(a) Thoracoscopy
b) barium enema
C) Colonoscopy
d) +Laparoscopy
e) Diaphanoscopy

16. The patient suffered a chest injury during the fight. After examination, the patient is assumed to have hemothorax.


What is the most appropriate instrumental study to clarify the diagnosis?
(a) Arthroscopy
b) Laparoscopy
C) Colonoscopy
d) barium enema
e)+Thoracoscopy
17. The patient was taken from the scene of a street fight, during which he received a chest injury. After examination, the patient is assumed to have a pneumothorax.
What is the most appropriate instrumental study to clarify the diagnosis?
(a) Arthroscopy
b) Thoracoscopy
C) Colonoscopy
d) Laparoscopy
d)+x-ray

18. The patient is 36 years old, taken to the emergency Department of the hospital. For 2 years he suffers from duodenal ulcer. The patient assumes latent peptic ulcer bleeding.


What is the most appropriate study to clarify the diagnosis?
a) ultrasound
b)+fecal analysis
C) blood test
d) colonoscopy
e) laparoscopy
19. The patient is 43 years old, taken to the emergency Department of the hospital. A history of duodenal ulcer. The patient is expected to have ulcerative bleeding.
What is the most appropriate study to clarify the diagnosis?
a) ultrasound
b)+EGD

C) fecal analysis


d) blood test


e) colonoscopy


20. The patient is 18 years old, delivered with a trauma of the right knee joint. According to the patient, he was injured while playing football. After examination, the patient is assumed to have hemarthrosis.
What is the most appropriate instrumental study to clarify the diagnosis?
a) ultrasound
b) rectoscopy
C)+arthroscopy
d) colposcopy
e) diaphanoscopy
21. Patient 24 years old, delivered with blunt trauma to the right lower limb. After examination, the patient is assumed to have a soft tissue hematoma of the right thigh.
What is the most appropriate instrumental study to clarify the diagnosis?
a)+UZI
b) rectoscopy
C) arthroscopy
d) colposcopy
e) diaphanoscopy

22. The patient is 59 years old, malignancy of gastric ulcer.


What is the most appropriate instrumental study to clarify the diagnosis?
a) ultrasound
b) EGD
C)+biopsy
d) laparoscopy
e) fluoroscopy
23. The patient is 45 years old and is expected to undergo urgent surgery for acute cholecystitis.
What drugs should be prescribed for sedation?
(a) morphine, dicaine
b) analgin, cerucal
C) baralgin, lidocaine
d) +Relanium, atropine
d) diphenhydramine, procaine
23. Teenager 16 years old, taken from the fire with a thermal burn. According to the rules and
the total area of the burn is - 27%.
What is the prognosis of the severity of the burn rule ?
(a) agonal
b) doubtful
C)+favorable
d) unfavorable
e) relatively favorable
24. The patient is 45 years old, brought from the fire with a thermal burn. According to the rules and
the total area of the burn is - 27%.
What is the prognosis of the severity of the burn rule ?
(a) agonal
b) doubtful
C) favorable
d) unfavorable
d)+relatively favorable

25. The patient is 68 years old, brought from the fire with a thermal burn. According to the rules and


the total area of the burn is - 27%.
What is the prognosis of the severity of the burn rule ?
(a) agonal
b)+doubtful
C) favorable
d) unfavorable
e) relatively favorable
26. The patient is 82 years old, taken from the fire with a thermal burn. The total area of the burn according to the rules and
is - 27%.
What is the prognosis of the severity of the burn rule ?
(a) agonal
b) doubtful
C) favorable
d)+unfavorable
e) relatively favorable

27. The patient is 23 years old, developed anaphylactic shock on the background of novocaine administration.


Which of the following is introduced primarily in the provision of medical care?
(a) antibiotics
b) analgesics
C) antispasmodics
d)+antihistamines
e) blood preparations
28. The patient is 25 years old and has a traumatic shock after a chest injury.
Which of the following is introduced primarily in the provision of medical care?
(a) antibiotics

b)+analgesics


C) antispasmodics

d) antihistamines


e) blood preparations


29. The patient is 64 years old, complained of a wound on the left Shin. Suffers from varicose veins of the lower extremities for 10 years. When viewed on the inner surface of the lower third of the left Shin, there is a wound up to 2.0 cm in diameter. The skin around the wound is hyperpigmented, the surface of the wound is covered with sukrovichnym detachable.


What complication did the patient develop?
a) erysipelas
b) abscess
C) gangrene
d) phlegmon
d)+trophic ulcer
30. Patient, 29 years old, delivered with complaints about the presence of a wound on the left hand, anxiety, occasional cramps and insomnia. According to the patient, 3-4 days ago he accidentally injured his left hand, did not apply anywhere. During the inspection of the celebrated periodical convulsions, opisthotonos and lockjaw masticatory muscles.
What is the MOST likely disease the patient has developed?
a) erysipelas
(b) sepsis
C) gangrene
d) phlegmon
d)+trophic ulcer

What is characteristics of benign tumor.


Echinococcus spread in human body by .

Location of echinocuccus in human body.


Does it belong to benign tumor.
What is not typical for malignant tumor.

Which of the following tumors is good quality.


When does the properative period start.
What kind of bleeding is used for applying a torniquet.

The most common causative agents of boils.


What is the purpose of pressing bandage.

The causative agent erysipelas is


With the index 2.0 algoveri the volume of blood loss is


In case of shock III art the shock index equal to.
Soft bandages includes.
Scheduled surgical treatment is performed for.

Which of the listed method of stopping bleeding is considered biological.


There are the following degrees of frostbite .
Specify the maximun allowed continous time for the tourniquet to stay on the lower limb in winter.
What is the mechanism of action detoxifying blood.
Which methods is applied to physical antiseptcis.

Red blood cells mass transfusion is indicated.


When appendectomy hernia repaird is more often used.
With the index 1.5 algoveri the volume of blood loss is
An emergency operation is indicated when


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